Inside you’ll find:
•
Two complete TOEFL ITP® Level 1 practice tests
•
MP3 audio files of the listening passages
• Answer keys and scoring information
• Study tips and test-taking strategies
TOEFL ITP
®
Practice Tests
Level 1, Volume 3
Copyright © 2020 by ETS. All rights reserved. ETS, the ETS logo, TOEFL and TOEFL ITP are registered trademarks of ETS
in the United States and other countries. The T logo and IN ENGLISH WITH CONFIDENCE are trademarks of ETS. 492544132
No part of the TOEFL ITP®
Assessment Series Practice
Tests (Volume 3) may be reproduced or transmitted in any
form or by any means, electronic or mechanical, including
photocopying, scanning, recording, or any information
storage and retrieval system, without permission in writing
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The publisher reserves the right to prosecute violators in
accordance to international treaties and the trademark and
copyright laws of the United States and other countries.
Direct permission requests to: www.ets.org/legal.
The TOEFL ITP® tests practice materials used in this book were taken from
actual test forms given to students at worldwide test administrations.
Some reading materials have been adapted from previously published
articles or books. To make these materials suitable for testing purposes, the
length and wording may have been changed.
The ideas expressed in the reading and listening materials contained in
the Practice Tests do not necessarily represent the opinions of the TOEFL®
Board or ETS.
The TOEFL Program does not operate, endorse, or recommend any schools
or study materials that claim to prepare people for the test in a short time
or promise high scores. Any use of material in this Practice Tests book or
the accompanying audio files by a school or study program does not
mean that the school or study program has been endorsed by ETS or the
TOEFL Program.
Copyright © 2020 by ETS. All rights reserved. ETS, the ETS logo, TOEFL and TOEFL ITP are registered
trademarks of ETS in the United States and other countries. The T logo and IN ENGLISH WITH
CONFIDENCE are trademarks of ETS.
Notes to the User
Table of Contents
About the TOEFL ITP® Tests ....................3
Test Content
....................................4
Section 1 – Listening Comprehension
.......4
Section 2 – Structure and Written
Expression .......................4
Section 3 – Reading Comprehension
........4
Preparing for the Test
.........................5
Taking the Practice Tests
.........................5
General Study Tips
..............................6
Reading Tips
................................6
Listening Tips
................................7
Structure and Written Expression Tips
........8
Use Proven Test-taking Strategies
............9
Answer Sheet
................................10
Completing Your Answer Sheet
................10
Practice Test A Answer Sheet
...................12
Practice Test B Answer Sheet
...................13
Practice Test A
...............................15
Section 1: Listening Comprehension
...........16
Part A
......................................16
Part B
.......................................22
Part C
......................................24
Section 2: Structure and Written Expression
.....29
Structure
...................................29
Written Expression
.........................32
Section 3: Reading Comprehension
............37
Practice Test B ...............................61
Section 1: Listening Comprehension ...........62
Part A ......................................62
Part B.......................................67
Part C ......................................69
Section 2: Structure and Written Expression.....73
Structure ...................................73
Written Expression .........................77
Section 3: Reading Comprehension ............82
Review Materials .......................... 103
Answer Keys .................................104
Practice Test A - Answer Key ..............104
Practice Test B - Answer Key ..............105
Listening Comprehension Script–
Practice Test A................................106
Part A ....................................106
Part B.....................................112
Part C ....................................116
Listening Comprehension Script –
Practice Test B ................................122
Part A ....................................122
Part B.....................................128
Part C ....................................132
Scoring Information ....................... 138
How to Score the Practice Tests...............139
Example of Score Calculation .............140
Converted Score Ranges .................141
Acceptable Scores........................141
The TOEFL ITP® tests measure the English-language proficiency of
individuals who are non-native speakers of English. They can be used to
identify students’ current levels of proficiency, to evaluate progress at the
end of a course, for placement in a program of study, for screening for
scholarship programs, or to complete a graduation requirement.
TOEFL ITP tests cannot be used as a substitute for the actual TOEFL®
test. TOEFL ITP test scores are to be used only by the institution that
administers the test.
It will be helpful for you to review what you have learned by using the
practice tests in this book. Your scores will help you identify areas where
you need improvement. This will also help you know what to expect when
you take the actual test.
There are no passing or failing scores set by ETS for TOEFL ITP tests – each
institution decides what scores are acceptable for its purposes.
3
About the TOEFL ITP® Tests
Test Content
TOEFL ITP® tests are composed of multiple-choice questions, each with
4 possible answers. There are 3 sections, with each section measuring a
critical skill in the use of English.
Section 1 – Listening Comprehension
The Listening section contains recorded material that includes the
vocabulary and idiomatic expressions typical of spoken English, as well
as grammatical constructions used in speech. The questions test your
comprehension of both short and long conversations and talks.
Section 2 – Structure and Written Expression
This section consists of sentences that test your knowledge of structural
and grammatical elements of standard written English. These sentences
include a variety of topics and give no advantage to students in specific
fields of study. When topics have a national context, they may refer to
United States or Canadian history, culture, art or literature. However,
knowledge of these contexts is not needed to answer questions
concerning the structural or grammatical points.
Section 3 – Reading Comprehension
Section 3 contains reading passages and questions about the passages.
The questions test your comprehension of the information that is stated
or implied in the passage. Knowledge of some specific words is also
tested. Because many English words have more than one meaning, it is
important to remember that these questions will test comprehension of
the meaning of a word or phrase within the context of the passage.
4
Preparing for the Test
5
Taking the Practice Tests
Taking the TOEFL ITP® Practice Tests will give you a good idea of what the
actual test is like in terms of the types of questions you will be asked, and
the time limits you will have. You will learn, for example, that the time
allotted for a test section must be used for both reading the directions and
answering the questions.
The test is divided into 3 sections. Each section or part of a section begins
with a set of special directions that includes sample questions and
answers. It is important to read these directions so you will understand
exactly what you are to do before you start to work on the section or part.
Some questions may be harder than others, but try to answer every one. If
you are not sure of the correct answer to a question, make the best guess
you can and go on to the next question. It is to your advantage to answer
every question, even if you have to guess.
As you are taking a practice test, work rapidly but carefully. Do not spend
too much time on any single question.
Each section of the test has a time limit. The recorded instructions will
tell you when to start Section 1 and when to stop. You will need to use
a watch or clock to time Sections 2 and 3. If you finish a section early, do
not go on to the next section until the allotted time has ended. During
the time that remains, check your work in that section only. If you do not
follow these rules when you take the actual test, it will be considered
cheating and your scores will be canceled.
Here are more guidelines for using the practice tests:
■
Plan to spend approximately 2 hours without interruption to take a
practice test
■ Choose a quiet room in which to work
■ Have a watch or clock so you can use the correct amount of time for
Section 2 (25 minutes) and Section 3 (55 minutes)
■ Have 2 sharpened black lead pencils and an eraser
■ Test your audio device before you start to be sure it works properly
■ Remove any study materials from your work area
6
General Study Tips
Reading Tips
As an English-language learner, you can improve your reading skills
by reading regularly, especially textbooks or other materials that cover
a variety of subject areas (for example, sciences, social sciences, arts,
business) and are written in an academic English style. A wide variety of
academic texts are available on the internet as well as in magazines and
journals.
Reading to find information –
■
Scan passages to find and highlight key facts and information such as
dates, numbers, or terms
■ Practice frequently to increase your English reading rate and fluency
Reading for basic comprehension –
■
Increase vocabulary; flashcards can help
■ Practice skimming a passage quickly to get a general impression of the
main idea, instead of carefully reading each word and each sentence
■ Develop the ability to skim quickly and identify major points
■ After skimming a passage, read it again more carefully and write down
the main idea, major points and important facts
■ Choose some unfamiliar words in the passage and guess the meaning
from the context (surrounding sentences); then, look them up to
determine their meaning
■ Underline all pronouns (he, him, they, them, etc.) and identify the nouns
to which they refer in the passage
■ Practice making inferences and drawing conclusions based on what is
implied in the passage as a whole
7
Listening Tips
Watching movies and TV and listening to podcasts provide excellent
opportunities to build your listening skills. Recorded lectures and
presentations are equally valuable and helpful. The internet is also a great
resource for listening material (for example, www.npr.org or
www.bbc.co.uk/radio or www.bbc.co.uk/worldservice/learningenglish).
Listening for basic comprehension –
■
Increase your English vocabulary
■ Focus on the content and flow of spoken material. Don’t be distracted
by the speaker’s style and delivery
■ Anticipate what a person is going to say as a way to stay focused
■ Stay active by asking yourself questions (for example, What main idea is
the professor communicating?)
■ On sections of a piece of paper, write “Main Idea,” “Major Points” and
“Important Details.” Listen carefully, and write these down while
listening. Continue listening until all important points and details are
written down, and then review them
■ Listen to a portion of a lecture or talk, and create an outline of
important points. Use the outline to write a brief summary. Gradually
increase the amount of the presentation you use to write the summary
Listening for pragmatic understanding –
■
Think about what each speaker hopes to accomplish: What is the
purpose of the speech or conversation? Is the speaker apologizing,
complaining, or making suggestions?
■ Notice each speaker’s style. Is the language formal or casual? Is the
speaker’s voice calm or emotional? What does the speaker’s tone of
voice tell you?
■ Notice the speaker’s degree of certainty. How sure is the speaker about
the information? Does the speaker’s tone of voice indicate something
about his or her degree of certainty?
■ Watch a TV or movie comedy. Pay careful attention to the way stress
and intonation patterns are used to convey meaning
8
Listening to connect information –
■
Think about how the lecture is organized. Listen for signal words that
indicate the introduction, major steps or ideas, examples, and the
conclusion or summary
■ Identify the relationships between ideas. Possible relationships include
cause/effect, compare/contrast, and steps in a process
■ Listen for words that show connections and relationships between
ideas
■ Listen to recorded material and stop the recording at various points.
Predict what information or idea will be expressed next
■ Create an outline of the information discussed while listening or after
listening
Structure and Written Expression Tips
Use English every day –
■
Set aside some time each day to communicate only in English
■ Listen, read and write in English every chance you get
9
Use Proven Test-taking Strategies
■
Carefully follow the directions in each section of the test to avoid
wasting time
■ Don’t panic. Concentrate exclusively on the current question only. Don’t
think about how you answered other questions. This is a habit that can
be learned through practice
■ Avoid spending too much time on any single question. If you have
given the question some thought and you still don’t know the answer,
eliminate as many choices as possible and then select the best
remaining choice
■ Pace yourself so you have enough time to answer every question. Be
aware of the time limit for each section, and budget enough time for
each question so you don’t have to rush at the end
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Completing Your Answer Sheet
When you mark your answers on your answer sheet –
■
Use a #2 or HB black lead pencil
■ Mark only 1 answer to each question
■ Be sure to mark your answer in the row with the same number as the
question you are answering
■ Carefully and completely fill in the oval corresponding to the answer
you choose for each question. If you change your mind about an
answer after you have marked it on your answer sheet, completely
erase your old answer and then mark your new answer
When you are ready to start –
■
Print the answer sheets or use a piece of paper
■ Leave this book open to page 15 for Practice Test A, or page 61 for
Practice Test B. Place the book and the sample answer sheet in front of
you
■ Turn on your listening device to access audio files
■ Follow the instructions you hear
Answer Sheet
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Practice Test A
Answer Sheet
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Practice Test B
Answer Sheet
Practice Test A
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are 3 parts to this section, with
special directions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is
stated or implied by the speakers in this test.
Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between 2 people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers
in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.
Here is an example:
On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer
A B C D
What does the man mean?
In your test book, you read: (A) He does not like the painting either.
(B) He does not know how to paint.
(C) He does not have any paintings.
(D) He does not know what to do.
You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting.
The best answer to the question “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He does not like the
painting either.” Therefore, the correct choice is (A).
Now begin work on the questions.
Section 1: Listening Comprehension
16
1. What does the woman
imply?
(A) She lost the man’s
calculator.
(B) She will lend the man
her calculator.
(C) The calculator may be
under the man’s book.
(D) The man will not have
time to find the
calculator.
2. What does the man
suggest the woman do?
(A) Work in the astronomy
department
(B) Add another course
next spring
(C) Find a job for the
summer
(D) Take an astronomy
course in the summer
3. What does the woman
imply about the man?
(A) He should work at
home.
(B) He can use the lab on
the weekend.
(C) He will have to repeat
the experiment next
week.
(D) He forgot to return the
key to security.
4. What does the man mean?
(A) He and his parents plan
to visit Japan.
(B) He recently returned
from Japan.
(C) His sweatshirt came
from Japan.
(D) The weather can be very
cold in some parts of
Japan.
5. What does the woman
mean?
(A) She will go to the
restaurant with the
man.
(B) She will meet the man
and his friends later in
the evening.
(C) She has already had
dinner.
(D) She will not change her
original plans.
6. What can be inferred about
the man?
(A) He will register for the
conference.
(B) He has nearly completed
all his research.
(C) He is not teaching any
classes today.
(D) He went to the wrong
Web site.
17
7. What does the woman
imply?
(A) The bicycle is too big
for her.
(B) She bought the bicycle
at a good price.
(C) She did not know about
the store on Harrison
Street.
(D) She has not used her
bike all summer.
8. What does the woman
imply?
(A) She did not buy the
ticket.
(B) The ticket was
expensive.
(C) She does not know how
much the ticket cost.
(D) There are still a few
tickets left.
9. What does the professor
mean?
(A) She will extend the
deadline for the
paper.
(B) She has already made an
exception for the
student.
(C) She does not accept late
papers.
(D) She cannot meet with
the student in the
library.
10. What can be inferred about
the man?
(A) He lives far from the
university.
(B) He is moving next
month.
(C) He prefers living on
campus.
(D) He might be able to
help the woman.
11. What does the woman
mean?
(A) She agrees with the
man.
(B) She would like to see
the movie a second
time.
(C) She has not seen the
movie.
(D) She does not
understand the man’s
point.
12. What does the man imply
about his sister?
(A) She delayed submitting
her application.
(B) She does not know
if her application will
be accepted.
(C) She was glad to finally
receive the letter.
(D) She started her classes
several weeks ago.
18
13. What does the woman
imply?
(A) She was also late for
the meeting.
(B) She is waiting for Mark
to fix her car.
(C) The meeting has not
started yet.
(D) The bus did not arrive
on time.
14. What does the man mean?
(A) He does not like to
wake up early in the
morning.
(B) The woman seems
unusually sad.
(C) There is no special
reason for his good
mood.
(D) He was not in a good
mood when he woke
up.
15. What does the woman
mean?
(A) She took a history class
last year.
(B) She does not trust the
man’s opinion.
(C) She probably will not
take any history
classes.
(D) She did not like her
sociology professor.
16. What does the man mean?
(A) He is very busy now.
(B) He has to check his
schedule.
(C) He can meet the
woman at six o’clock.
(D) He prefers to meet the
woman some other
time.
17. What does the man imply?
(A) The course is too
difficult.
(B) The professor changed
his mind.
(C) The final exam was
cancelled.
(D) The woman
misunderstood the
professor.
18. What does the man mean?
(A) The woman deserves
the recognition.
(B) The woman should tell
her friends how she
feels.
(C) The woman’s friends
do not know about
the scholarship.
(D) The woman should
apply for a
scholarship.
19
19. What will the woman
probably do next?
(A) Ask the man to help
her figure out how to
use her new
computer
(B) Let the man use her
computer
(C) Take her computer to a
repair shop
(D) Help the man fix his
computer
20. What does the man mean?
(A) He was at the health
center earlier today.
(B) He intends to get his
blood pressure
checked.
(C) He does not have time
to wait in line today.
(D) He is not concerned
about his blood
pressure.
21. What does the woman
mean?
(A) She plans to visit the
man occasionally.
(B) She hopes the man is
able to find a job.
(C) She would like to hear
from the man.
(D) She wants to know
when the man will
return.
22. What does the woman
imply?
(A) She does not know
where her pen is.
(B) The man may borrow
her pen.
(C) She does not buy
expensive pens.
(D) The man has found her
missing pen.
23. What can be inferred from
this conversation?
(A) The man’s directions
were not very good.
(B) The woman forgot to
take the man’s
directions with her.
(C) The woman was
not able to drive to
the conference.
(D) The conference was not
very interesting.
24. What does the woman
mean?
(A) She will meet the man
at the café.
(B) She has not yet read
the proposal.
(C) The proposal has been
approved.
(D) The café does not need
renovations.
20
25. What does the woman
suggest the man do?
(A) Buy a different kind of
medicine
(B) See a doctor
(C) Take a second pill
(D) Avoid taking any
medication
26. What does the man imply
about Phil?
(A) He changed his plans
about school.
(B) His parents are coming
out to visit him.
(C) He was only out of
school one semester.
(D) He is going to take next
semester off.
27. What does the woman
imply?
(A) The man should follow
the florist’s advice.
(B) The man should go to a
different florist.
(C) She bought flowers
from the same florist.
(D) Cutting flowers does
not make them last
longer.
28. What does the man imply?
(A) There was not enough
time for questions.
(B) The lecture topic was
not interesting.
(C) The speaker was difficult
to hear.
(D) The audience’s
questions were not
interesting.
29. What does the man mean?
(A) He wants to give the
woman more
information.
(B) He does not mind
waiting to see the
dentist.
(C) He does not remember
where he put the
dentist’s card.
(D) He will take the woman
to the dentist’s office
soon.
30. What does the woman
imply?
(A) She also has a
presentation to do.
(B) She enjoys speaking in
front of other people.
(C) The man’s presentation
will be a success.
(D) The man should
practice his
presentation.
21
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
22
31. What are the students
mainly discussing?
(A) A swimming
competition
(B) A singing contest
(C) The water temperature
at the beach
(D) The woman’s schedule
this semester
32. What does the woman say
about the winners of the
competition?
(A) They have won for the
past three years.
(B) They placed second last
year.
(C) They practiced for
three months prior to
the competition.
(D) She thought they did
not perform well.
33. How did the man spend
his weekend?
(A) Studying in the library
(B) Practicing his singing
(C) Walking on the beach
(D) Swimming in the ocean
34. What does the woman
say about her weekend
schedule?
(A) She spent many
hours on a bus.
(B) She was too busy to
enjoy the beach.
(C) She had plenty of time
to study.
(D) She did not have time
to watch the
competition.
35. What is the conversation
mainly about?
(A) The first Japanese artist
to start an art school
in the United States
(B) Two artists’ efforts to
promote Japanese art
in Europe
(C) One artist’s struggle
to overcome financial
difficulties
(D) Influences on one
artist’s work
36. What kind of work did
Noguchi’s father do?
(A) He wrote poetry.
(B) He built houses.
(C) He designed gardens.
(D) He created modern
sculptures.
37. According to the professor,
what did Noguchi learn to
do when he was a child in
Japan?
(A) Draw the human figure
(B) See similarities between
poetry and visual art
(C) Appreciate and work
with natural materials
(D) Use money wisely
23
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you
will hear some questions. The talks and the questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example:
On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer
A B C D
Now listen to a sample question:
In your test book, you read: What is the main purpose of the program?
(A)
To demonstrate the latest use of computer
graphics
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic
depression
(C) To explain the workings of the brain
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story
The best answer to the question, “What is the main purpose of the program?” is (C), ”To
explain the workings of the brain.” Therefore, the correct answer is (C).
Now listen to another sample question: Sample Answer
A B C D
In your test book, you read: Why does the speaker recommend watching the
program?
(A)
It is required of all science majors.
(B) It will never be shown again.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
(D) It will help with course work.
The best answer to the question “Why does the speaker recommend watching the
program?” is (D), “It will help with course work.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
24
38. What is the main purpose
of the lecture?
(A) To analyze the
importance of touch
in marketing
(B) To compare marketing
strategies involving
touch and smell
(C) To explain why
shoppers rely more
on touch than on
their other senses
(D) To introduce a new way
to conduct market
research
39. According to the professor,
what psychological feeling
do shoppers tend to have
when they touch an item
of merchandise?
(A) That they have more
time to make a
purchasing decision
(B) That they are highly
valued by the owner
of the store
(C) That the item they are
touching is already
theirs
(D) That the price of the
item is too high
40. What does the professor
imply about marketers
who sell items online?
(A) Their customers like
that the products are
not touched by
others.
(B) They get more returned
items than traditional
stores do.
(C) Their descriptions ought
to help shoppers
imagine how items
feel.
(D) Their photographs are
often ineffective.
41. What does the professor
emphasize as an important
characteristic of shoppers?
(A) They are usually willing
to pay more for items
they can touch.
(B) They are reluctant to
buy items that were
touched repeatedly
by other shoppers.
(C) They touch only items
that they intend to
buy.
(D) They are less likely to
touch items when the
store owner is
watching.
25
42. What is the main purpose
of the talk?
(A) To summarize the
history of
mathematics
(B) To show how
Mesopotamian
science influenced
Greek science
(C) To discuss a mistaken
historical
interpretation
(D) To explain why tablets
are reliable historical
records
43. What was on the
Mesopotamian tablet
mentioned in the talk?
(A) Names of
mathematicians
(B) Mathematical
calculations
(C) Measurements of
buildings
(D) Measurements of
various shapes
44. According to the professor,
what had been assumed
about the Mesopotamians?
(A) All records of their
mathematics had
been lost.
(B) They created various
types of measuring
devices.
(C) They did not use tablets
to record information.
(D) They could calculate
measurements of
triangles.
45. According to the professor,
how was the tablet
most likely used by the
Mesopotamians?
(A) As a math exercise
sheet
(B) As a record of business
transactions
(C) As a geometry textbook
(D) As a plan for a new
building
26
46. What does the professor
imply about the ancient
Greeks?
(A) They learned geometry
from Mesopotamian
tablets.
(B) They were less advanced
in mathematics than
the Mesopotamians.
(C) They improved the
quality of stone
tablets.
(D) They knew how to
measure angles.
47. What is the talk mainly
about?
(A) How the age of a fossil
is determined
(B) How fossilized
impressions were
made on the seafloor
(C) Techniques for
excavating fossils from
the sea
(D) Recently discovered
fossilized footprints
48. According to the professor,
what question does the
discovery in Canada help
answer?
(A) When animals first
emerged from the sea
(B) Where fossils are most
easily found
(C) How footprints on the
seafloor are preserved
(D) Why some animals
became extinct
49. Why does the professor
mention stonecutters?
(A) To illustrate the variety
of stone found in
Canada
(B) To show that the fossils
were found by luck
(C) To explain why
sandstone often
contains fossils
(D) To tell why fossils are
sometimes damaged
50. What evidence is given
to show whether the
footprints were made
by animals on land or
underwater?
(A) The hardness of the
sandstone
(B) The depth of the
footprints
(C) The type of animal that
made the footprints
(D) The location of the rock
layer
27
This is the end of Section 1, Listening Comprehension.
Stop work on Section 1.
Read the directions for Section 2 and begin work.
DO NOT read or work on any other section of the test for
the next 25 minutes.
28
Time: 25 minutes, including the reading of directions
Now set your clock for 25 minutes.
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is
appropriate for standard written English. There are 2 types of questions in this section,
with special directions for each type.
Structure
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you
will see 4 words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Choose the word or phrase
that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the
question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes they both emit hot liquids
from below the Earth’s surface.
(A) due to
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of
The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because
they both emit hot liquids from beneath the Earth’s surface.” Therefore, the correct
choice is (B).
Example II Sample Answer
A B C D
During the early period of ocean navigation, any need for sophisticated
instruments and techniques.
(A) so that hardly
(B) when there hardly was
(C) hardly was
(D) there was hardly
The sentence should read, “During the earlier period of ocean navigation, there was
hardly any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, the correct
answer is (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
Section 2: Structure and Written Expression
29
1. _____ of classical ballet in
the United States began
around 1830.
(A) To teach
(B) Is teaching
(C) It was taught
(A) The teaching
2. Mason bees are solitary
bees, which means _____
in colonies like honeybees
or bumblebees.
(A) do not live
(B) when they do not live
(C) that they do not live
(D) that do not live
3. Long before the advent of
written literature, _____
their myths and stories
in oral poems told by
successive generations.
(A) people recorded
(B) recording people
(C) people’s recordings
(D) people who recorded
4. Comparative anatomy is
_____ classification of
both plants and animals.
(A) the basis for
(B) for basics
(C) the basis that
(D) the basically
5. Although legend has it that
the Pilgrims first set foot
in America on Plymouth
Rock in 1620, _____
documentary evidence
confirming this.
(A) no
(B) still is no
(C) there is no
(D) but no
6. Despite its fishlike form, the
whale is _____ and will
drown if submerged too
long.
(A) an animal breathes air
that
(B) an animal that breathes
air
(C) an animal breathes air
(D) that an animal breathes
air
7. Clouds _____ in warm air
rises, cools, and condenses.
(A) when form water vapor
(B) form when water vapor
(C) form vapor water when
(D) vapor form when water
8. Portland, _____ , is located
primarily on two hilly
peninsulas overlooking
Casco Bay and its many
islands.
(A) which Maine’s largest
city
(B) Maine’s largest city
where
(C) is Maine’s largest city
(D) Maine’s largest city
30
9. Mars, the so-called red
planet, is actually colored
red by iron oxide and other
impurities _____ the
whole surface.
(A) that cover
(B) in which are covered
(C) that they cover
(D) and covered
10. The 1903 film The Great
Train Robbery was the first
significant film in which
the classic western story’s
formula of crime and
retribution _____ .
(A) was used
(B) to be used
(C) used
(D) had used
11. When played in certain
ways, the bassoon can
produce comical sounds,
_____ it is sometimes
referred to as the clown of
the orchestra.
(A) or
(B) that
(C) so
(D) whether
12. In modern societies, _____
authorized body such as a
legislature or a court makes
the law.
(A) some
(B) some of
(C) some the
(D) for some
13. The sense of smell
functions chemically,
_____ the sense of taste,
but it is 10,000 times more
sensitive.
(A) as does
(B) so have
(C) which as
(D) by which
14. _____ primarily from plant
oils, perfumes were used in
ancient times as incense in
religious rites, in medicines,
and later for adornment.
(A) Made them
(B) They made
(C) Made
(D) By making
15. Boise became _____ of
the state of Idaho in 1864.
(A) as the capital
(B) the capital
(C) to be the capital
(D) the capital was
31
Written Expression
Directions: In questions 16-40, each sentence has 4 underlined words or phrases. The
underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C) and (D). Identify the underlined
word or phrase that must be changed in order for the sentence to be correct. Then, on
your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds
to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish due to the bright colors of the males.
A B C D
The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish due to the bright
colors of the males.” Therefore, you should choose (A).
Example II Sample Answer
A B C D
Serving several term in the United States Congress, Shirley Chisholm became a
A B C
respected political figure.
D
The sentence should read, “Serving several terms in the United States Congress, Shirley
Chisholm became a respected political figure.” Therefore, you should choose (B).
Now begin work on the questions.
32
16. Soybeans contain a rich concentrations of phytoestrogens,
A B
estrogenlike molecules derived from plants.
C D
17. The original Welland Canal, opened which in 1829, was neither deep
A B
enough nor wide enough for modern ships.
C D
18. A lubricant minimizes the introduction of dirt, moisture, or other foreign
A B
materials between sliding surfaces, eliminates wear by keeping the surfaces
C
apart, and prevention corrosion.
D
19. There are thousands kinds of inks used both in the printing industry
A B C
and in the manufacture of ballpoint and fountain pens for writing.
D
20. A gene is a biological unit of information who directs the activity of a cell or
A B C
organism during its lifetime.
D
21. Like landscapes in miniature, gardens are places to grow plants for pleasure
A B
and to provide beauty and relaxed.
C D
22. Hurricanes consist at high-velocity winds blowing circularly around
A B C
a low-pressure center known as the eye of the storm.
D
23. One of the most significance political movements since the Second World
A B
War ended has been the breaking up of former colonial empires into
C
independent nations.
D
33
24. Radar can determine the direction, distance, height, and speed of objects
A B
that are too much far away for the human eye to see.
C D
25. Establishing outside Minneapolis, Minnesota, in 1976, the Minnesota Valley
A
National Wildlife Refuge contains more than 9,000 acres of forests, prairies,
B C
marshes, and lakes.
D
26. Most animals have salivary glands what resemble those in humans.
A B C D
27. Used for making pottery, clay has two characteristics distinctive: it can be
A B
molded and it can be baked to form a brittle but otherwise durable
C D
material.
28. The novels of Amy Tan depict of tension between mothers and daughters
A
as well as conflicts experienced by many Chinese immigrants to the United
B C D
States.
29. The symptoms of pneumonia, a lung infection, include high fever, chest
A B C
pain, breathing difficult, and coughing.
D
30. A basic premise of humanism is that people are rational beings who
A
possesses the capacity for truth and goodness.
B C D
34
31. The long of time a battery maintains its useful life while idle depends on
A B C D
many factors: quality of construction, cell size, cell type, and storage
temperature.
32. Leather is dried under natural or controlled humidity conditions, prepared
A B C
it for subsequent softening and finishing operations.
D
33. Of all the organized, independent city in Texas, Laredo, founded in 1755, is
A B C
the oldest.
D
34. There was in Kitty Hawk, North Carolina, on December 17, 1903, that the
A
first controlled flight of a powered, heavier-than-air craft took place.
B C D
35. The favored habitat of the junco, a small sparrow, is a mixed or coniferous
A B
forest, despite it is often noted in fields, thickets, and city parks.
C D
36. By studying modern coral reefs, geologists and biologists hope to
A B
understand mechanism of formation, migration, and entrapment of
C D
petroleum in ancient reefs.
37. Searching for alternate forms of energy does not necessary mean
A B
the abandonment of fossil fuels as an energy source.
C D
38. United States civil rights activist Medgar Evers was a leader in the struggle
A B
to gain equal rights to African Americans in his home state, Mississippi.
C D
35
39. The element potassium makes up less than one half percentage of the
A B C D
human body.
40. The canoe designed by North American Indians was very suitable for use
A
on inland waters, for it was easily portable and had amply storage space.
B C D
This is the end of Section 2.
If you finish before time is called, check your work on
Section 2 only.
DO NOT read or work on any other section of the test.
At the end of 25 minutes, go on to Section 3.
Use exactly 55 minutes to work on Section 3.
36
Time: 55 minutes, including the reading of the directions
Now set your clock for 55 minutes.
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each passage is followed
by several questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the best answer,
(A), (B), (C) or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of
the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have
chosen.
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in
that passage.
Read the following sample passage:
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society,
or to draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as
merchants have set out their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have
been celebrated, people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as
to the time of day. The value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever.
Were it not for public acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be
unbearably chaotic: the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information
would proceed in fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to
unravel.
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth functioning
of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain activities.
The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be
measured in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).
Line
5
Section 3: Reading Comprehension
37
Example II Sample Answer
A B C D
In line 5, the phrase “this tradition” refers to
(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C) the railroad’s reliance on time schedules
(D) people’s agreement on the measurement of time
The phrase “this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, “people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day.” Therefore, you should choose
(D)
.
Now begin work on the questions.
38
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
39
Questions 1-10
In the later part of the nineteenth century, the direction of expansion in the
United States shifted from the countryside to the city. During the crises of the 1870s
and the 1890s, tens of thousands of families abandoned their farms and ranches and
headed for urban areas. Even prosperity produced migration from the countryside to
the city. As pioneers settled rural districts, eventually the number of farms or ranches
approached the maximum number the land would support. Landowners sought to
increase their productivity through mechanization, and those who were successful
invested their returns in the purchase of additional land and equipment, expanding their
holdings by buying the farms of less fortunate neighbors, who moved on. Compare this
pattern of economic development with that of the city, where innovations in
manufacturing led to the creation of new opportunities and new jobs. But in the
countryside, economic development inevitably meant depopulation. Rural areas in the
central part of the country had begun to lose population by the 1880s, and over the next
half century most of the rural West was overtaken by this trend. For every industrial
worker who became a farmer, 20 young men from farms rushed to the city to compete
for his job.
Less well-known is the fact that for every 20 young farm men, as many as 25 or
30 young farm women moved from the rural West to the cities. As a government report
noted in 1920, young farm women were more likely to leave the farm and move to a
western city than were young farm men. This amounted to a stunning reversal of the
traditional pattern of western urban settlement, which featured the presence of many
young, unattached men among the migrants but almost no single women.
What explains the greater rates of female migration to the cities? In the opinion of
many contemporaries, young women were pushed out of the countryside by constricted
opportunities, particularly limited educational and vocational options.
Line
5
10
15
20
40
1. What aspect of the
United States in the late
nineteenth and early
twentieth centuries
does the passage mainly
discuss?
(A) Why young women
chose to move from
farms to cities
(B) The number and types
of manufacturing jobs
created in cities
(C) Changes in settlement
patterns between
farms and cities
(D) The effects of
mechanization on
western migration
2. The word “expansion” in
line 1 is closest in meaning
to
(A) change
(B) growth
(C) population
(D) labor
3. The word “abandoned” in
line 3 is closest in meaning
to
(A) left behind
(B) sold
(C) gave away
(D) gradually reduced the
size of
4. Why does the author
discuss “prosperity” in
line 4 ?
(A) To indicate that more
than one factor
contributed to the
movement from rural
to urban settlement
(B) To support the idea that
many families were
able to stop farming
and migrate to the
cities
(C) To suggest that the
migration would have
happened despite the
economic situation
(D) To argue against
economics as the
primary factor in
migration
5. According to the first
paragraph, in the late
1800s, farmland was most
likely to be purchased by
(A) city businessmen
seeking new
investments
(B) successful landowners
who had mechanized
farms
(C) young farm men
starting to work
(D) people who had few
opportunities in cities
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
41
6. The word “inevitably” in
line 12 is closest in
meaning to
(A) unexpectedly
(B) usually
(C) unavoidably
(D) possibly
7. The phrase “this trend” in
line 14 refers to
(A) industrial workers
becoming farmers
(B) the economic
development of the
countryside
(C) the loss of rural
population
(D) innovations in
manufacturing
8. According to the first
paragraph, which of the
following is true about the
population of the United
States after the 1880s?
(A) Fewer people lived on
farms.
(B) The central part of the
United States lost
much of its
population to rural
areas in the West.
(C) Rural areas of the West
became more
populated than those
in the central part of
the country.
(D) Work opportunities
in urban areas began
to decline.
9. According to the second
paragraph, how did
migration among young
women in the rural West
differ from that of young
men?
(A) Young women were
more likely to leave
rural areas to go to
urban areas.
(B) Young women were
more likely to take
jobs on farms.
(C) Young women who
migrated generally
had more education.
(D) Young women
generally moved
more frequently from
one rural area to
another.
10. The word “constricted”
in line 24 is closest in
meaning to
(A) unappealing
(B) reduced
(C) low-paying
(D) disappearing
42
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
43
Questions 11-21
The deepest that any person can get below the surface of Earth is to the bottom of
the deepest mine, a mere 4 kilometers; the deepest hole ever drilled into Earth’s crust
reached less than 20 kilometers below the surface. Although the details of Earth’s
gravitational and magnetic fields give some extra information about what is going on
inside Earth, for the most part our understanding of Earth’s interior is still dependent
on the detection of seismic waves, the vibrations caused by earthquakes. These waves
travel through Earth and are reflected and refracted by boundaries between different
layers of rock.
What the analysis of seismic waves shows is a layered structure built around a solid
inner core, which has a radius of about 1,600 kilometers. This inner core is surrounded
by a liquid outer core, which has a thickness of just over 1,800 kilometers. The whole
core is very dense, probably rich in iron, and has a temperature of nearly 5,000 degrees
Celsius. The circulation of this electrically conducting material in the liquid outer core
is clearly responsible for the generation of Earth’s magnetic field, but nobody has ever
been able to work out a thoroughly satisfactory model of how this process works.
The high temperature in the core is in part a result of the fact that the Earth formed
as a ball of molten rock. Once a cool crust had formed around the molten ball of rock,
it functioned as an insulating blanket. Even so, without some continuing injection of
heat, the interior of Earth could not still be as hot as it is today, more than four billion
years later. The extra heat comes from radioactive isotopes (originally manufactured by
stars), which decay into stable elements and give out energy as they do so. In about
ten billion years, even this source of heat will be used up, and Earth will gradually cool
down.
Line
5
10
15
20
11. What does the passage
mainly discuss?
(A) The similarities between
Earth’s inner core and
outer core
(B) The structure and
temperature of Earth’s
interior
(C) When seismic waves
were first used to
study Earth’s interior
(D) Why Earth’s solid inner
core is surrounded by
a molten outer core
12. The word “mere” in line 2 is
closest in meaning to
(A) approximate
(B) insignificant
(C) measured
(D) lengthy
44
13. According to the
first paragraph, most
knowledge of Earth’s
interior has been gained by
studying
(A) Earth’s gravitational
field
(B) Earth’s magnetic field
(C) vibrations caused by
earthquakes
(D) material taken from
holes drilled into
Earth’s crust
14. According to the second
paragraph, which of the
following statements
regarding Earth’s inner core
and outer core is true?
(A) Neither the inner core
nor the outer core
can be studied using
seismic waves.
(B) The outer core is more
solid than the inner
core.
(C) The inner core and the
outer core have
greatly different
temperatures.
(D) Both the inner core and
the outer core
probably contain iron.
15. The word “thoroughly”
in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) basically
(B) similarly
(C) potentially
(D) completely
16. The word “it” in line 18
refers to
(A) Earth
(B) a cool crust
(C) the molten ball of rock
(D) the heat
17. The word “functioned”
in line 18 is closest in
meaning to
(A) acted
(B) moved
(C) appeared
(D) grew
18. The word “manufactured”
in line 20 is closest in
meaning to
(A) changed
(B) combined
(C) utilized
(D) made
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
45
19. The third paragraph
mentions which of the
following as one cause
of the current high
temperature of Earth’s
interior?
(A) The decay of
radioactive isotopes
(B) The movement of
elements from Earth’s
crust to its interior
(C) The vibrations that
result from
movement of Earth’s
crust
(D) The injection of certain
organic elements into
Earth’s inner core
20. Look at the terms
“seismic waves” (line 6),
“earthquakes” (line 6),
“magnetic field” (line 14),
and “stable elements”
(line 21). Which of these
terms is defined in the
passage?
(A) seismic waves
(B) earthquakes
(C) magnetic field
(D) stable elements
21. According to the
passage, scientists do not
understand in detail how
(A) the crust affects Earth’s
internal temperature
(B) radioactive isotopes
cause heat
(C) Earth’s magnetic field is
created
(D) seismic waves originate
46
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
47
Questions 22-32
Amber is not a mineral but is used as, and called, a semiprecious stone. The oldest
and most continuous use of it is for decoration. Although it is ancient tree resin, amber
is not fossilized in the most commonly understood sense of the word. We often think of
fossils as the remains of extinct organisms, like dinosaur bones, and impressions of
ferns, leaves, and insect wings in rocks. Unlike these kinds of fossils, which are usually
mineral replacements of the original structure, amber is entirely organic; its
composition from the original tree resin has changed little over millions of years. Even
the inclusions of tiny organisms in amber are strikingly intact. Exquisite preservation is
a natural property of certain kinds of resins, although the process is not completely
understood.
Hundreds of deposits of amber occur around the world, most of them in trace
quantities. Amber is found in places where the hardened resin of various extinct plants
is preserved, but special conditions are required to preserve this substance over
millions of years, and only occasionally has amber survived in quantities large enough
to be mined. Only about 20 such rich deposits of amber exist in the world, and the
deposits vary greatly in age. It is a common misconception that amber is derived
exclusively from pine trees; in fact, amber was formed by various conifer trees (only a few
of them apparently related to pines), as well as by some tropical broad-leaved
trees.
Amber is almost always preserved in a sediment that collected at the bottom of an
ancient lagoon or river delta at the edge of an ocean or sea. The specific gravity of solid
amber is only slightly higher than that of water; although it does not float, it is buoyant
and easily carried by water (amber with bubbles is even more buoyant). Thus, amber
would be carried downriver with logs from fallen amber-producing trees and cast up as
beach drift on the shores or in the shallows of a delta into which the river empties.
Over time, sediments would gradually bury the wood and resin. The resin would
become amber, and the wood a blackened, charcoal-like substance called lignite.
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15
20
25
48
22. The passage mainly
discusses the
(A) difference between
amber and mineral
fossils
(B) places where amber can
be found
(C) various characteristics of
amber
(D) types of trees that
produced amber
23. Why does the author
mention dinosaur bones in
the first paragraph?
(A) To emphasize the age of
fossils
(B) To explain why there are
more mineral
replacement fossils
than organic fossils
(C) To compare them with
amber as a different
type of fossil
(D) To give an example of
an object in which
amber is commonly
found
24. The word “intact” in line 8 is
closest in meaning to
(A) beautiful
(B) unusual
(C) obvious
(D) unchanged
25. The word “trace” in line 11
is closest in meaning to
(A) unknown
(B) decreasing
(C) very small
(D) somewhat similar
26. According to the second
paragraph, which of the
following is true about
deposits of amber?
(A) There is a limited
number of large
deposits of amber in
the world.
(B) Most deposits contain
large quantities of
amber specimens.
(C) The major amber
deposits were formed
at approximately the
same time.
(D) The deposits were
formed primarily by
tropical broad-leaved
trees.
27. The word “misconception”
in line 16 is closest in
meaning to
(A) false belief
(B) known fact
(C) scientific theory
(D) subject of debate
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
49
28. The word “them” in line 18
refers to
(A) deposits
(B) pine trees
(C) conifer trees
(D) broad-leaved trees
29. The word “Thus” in line 23 is
closest in meaning to
(A) consequently
(B) instead
(C) moreover
(D) initially
30. The word “bury” in line 26 is
closest in meaning to
(A) cover
(B) color
(C) fill
(D) damage
31. It can be inferred from the
passage that amber is most
commonly used
(A) to determine the age of
other ancient
materials that are
found with it
(B) as jewelry
(C) to compare the
characteristics of
living trees to those of
ancient trees
(D) to preserve fossil
impressions
32. Which of the following is
NOT true of amber?
(A) It is composed of an
organic material.
(B) It is basically the same
as it was millions of
years ago.
(C) It may contain the
remains of tiny
animals.
(D) It is made by a process
of mineral
replacement.
50
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
51
Questions 33-42
Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in successive waves over several
millennia, crossing a plain hundreds of miles wide that now lies inundated by 160 feet
of water released by melting glaciers. For several periods of time, the first beginning
around 60,000 B.C. and the last ending around 7000 B.C., this land bridge was open.
The first people traveled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted. They brought
with them not only their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad metaphysical
understanding, sprung from dreams and visions and articulated in myth and song,
which complemented their scientific and historical knowledge of the lives of animals
and of people. All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing into being oral
literatures of power and beauty.
Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of Western epic, lyric, and dramatic
forms, are easily disposed to think of “literature” only as something written. But on
reflection it becomes clear that the more critically useful as well as the more frequently
employed sense of the term concerns the artfulness of the verbal creation, not its mode
of presentation. Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued, regardless of language,
culture, or mode of presentation, because some significant verbal achievement results
from the struggle in words between tradition and talent. Verbal art has the ability to
shape out a compelling inner vision in some skillfully crafted public verbal form.
Of course, the differences between the written and oral modes of expression are not
without consequences for an understanding of Native American literature. The
essential difference is that a speech event is an evolving communication, an “emergent
form,” the shape, functions, and aesthetic values of which become more clearly
realized over the course of the performance. In performing verbal art, the performer
assumes responsibility for the manner as well as the content of the performance, while
the audience assumes the responsibility for evaluating the performer’s competence in
both areas. It is this intense mutual engagement that elicits the display of skill and
shapes the emerging performance. Where written literature provides us with a tradition
of texts, oral literature offers a tradition of performances.
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15
20
25
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33. According to the passage,
why did the first people
who came to North
America leave their
homeland?
(A) They were hoping to
find a better climate.
(B) They were seeking
freedom.
(C) They were following
instructions given in a
dream.
(D) They were looking for
food.
34. The phrase “are easily
disposed” in line 12 is
closest in meaning to
(A) demonstrate reluctance
(B) readily encourage
others
(C) have a tendency
(D) often fail
35. The word “Ultimately”
in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) frequently
(B) normally
(C) whenever possible
(D) in the end
36. The word “compelling”
in line 18 is closest in
meaning to
(A) joyous
(B) intricate
(C) competing
(D) forceful
37. What is the main point of
the second paragraph?
(A) Public performance is
essential to verbal art.
(B) Oral narratives are
a valid form of
literature.
(C) Native Americans have
a strong oral tradition
in art.
(D) The production
of literature provides
employment for
many artists.
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
53
38. According to the passage,
what responsibility does
the audience of a verbal art
performance have?
(A) They provide financial
support for
performances.
(B) They judge the quality
of the content and
presentation.
(C) They participate in the
performance by
chanting responses.
(D) They determine the
length of the
performance by
requesting a
continuation.
39. What can be inferred
about the nature of the
Native American literature
discussed in the passage?
(A) It reflects historical and
contemporary life in
Asia.
(B) Its main focus is on
daily activities.
(C) It is based primarily on
scientific knowledge.
(D) It is reshaped each time
it is experienced.
40. Which of the following
is NOT true of the Native
American literature
discussed in the passage?
(A) It involves acting.
(B) It has ancient origins.
(C) It has a set form.
(D) It expresses an inner
vision.
41. What can be inferred from
the passage about the
difference between written
and oral literature?
(A) Written literature
reflects social values
better than oral
literature does.
(B) Written literature
involves less
interaction between
audience and creator
during the creative
process than oral
literature does.
(C) Written literature usually
is not based on
historical events,
whereas oral literature
is.
(D) Written literature is not
as highly respected as
oral literature is.
42. What is the author’s
attitude toward Native
American literature?
(A) Admiring of its form
(B) Critical of the cost of its
production
(C) Amused by its content
(D) Skeptical about its
origins
54
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
55
Questions 43-50
Color in textiles is produced by dyeing, by printing, or by painting. Until the
nineteenth century, all dyes were derived from vegetable or, more rarely, animal or
mineral sources.
Since madder plants could be grown practically everywhere, the roots of some
species of the madder plant family were used from the earliest period to produce a
whole range of reds. Red animal dyes, derived from certain species of scale insects,
were also highly valued from ancient times through the Middle Ages. Blues were
obtained from indigo, which was widely cultivated in India and exported from there,
and from woad, a plant common in Europe and also used in the Near East from the
beginning of the Christian era. Before the first, nonfading “solid” green was invented
in the early nineteenth century, greens were achieved by the overdyeing or overprinting
of yellow and blue. However, yellow dyes, whether from weld or some other plant
source such as saffron or turmeric, invariably fade or disappear. This accounts for the
bluish tinge of what were once bright greens in, for example, woven tapestry.
The range of natural colors was hugely expanded and, indeed, superseded by the
chemical dyes developed during the eighteen hundreds. By 1900 a complete range of
synthetic colors had been evolved, many of them reaching a standard of resistance to
fading from exposure to light and to washing that greatly exceeded that of natural
dyestuffs. Since then, the petroleum industry has added many new chemicals, and from
these other types of dyestuffs have been developed. Much of the research in dyes was
stimulated by the peculiarities of some of the new synthetic fibers. Acetate rayon, for
example, seemed at first to have no affinity for dyes and a new range of dyes had to be
developed; nylon and Terylene presented similar problems.
The printing of textiles has involved a number of distinct methods. With the
exception of printing patterns directly onto the cloth, whether by block, roller, or
screen, all of these are based on dyeing; that is, the immersion of the fabric in a dye
bath.
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5
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15
20
25
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43. The passage mainly
discusses the
(A) development of
synthetic colors
for textiles during the
nineteenth century
(B) advantages of chemical
dyes over dyes
derived from plants
and animals
(C) differences between
dyeing textiles and
printing them
(D) history of the use of
natural and chemical
dyes to color textiles
44. According to the passage,
what was the source of
most textile dyes that were
used before the nineteenth
century?
(A) Animals
(B) Minerals
(C) Plants
(D) Chemicals
45. What was the advantage
of using madder plants for
different shades of red?
(A) It was possible to
cultivate madder
plants in almost every
location.
(B) Madder plants
produced brighter
colors than other
plant sources.
(C) Plant sources produced
more lasting colors
than animal sources.
(D) Dyes derived from the
madder plants were
easier to work with
than other dyes.
46. The word “invariably” in
line 13 is closest in
meaning to
(A) without exception
(B) steadily
(C) after some time
(D) noticeably
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
57
47. It can be inferred from the
passage that the green
areas in woven tapestries
developed a bluish tinge
because
(A) a darker color, like blue,
dominates a light
color, like yellow
(B) light changed some of
the green dye used in
the tapestries to blue
(C) the yellow dye that was
used in the tapestries
had faded
(D) the dyes used to color
woven tapestries were
made from minerals
48. The word “superseded”
in line 15 is closest in
meaning to
(A) strengthened
(B) improved
(C) replaced
(D) complemented
49. According to the passage,
how did chemical dyes
compare to natural dyes?
(A) The chemical dyes had
less attractive colors.
(B) The chemical dyes were
less easy to use.
(C) The chemical dyes
lost their brightness
more quickly when
exposed to light.
(D) The chemical dyes
held up better after
washing.
50. According to the passage,
what problem led to the
development of new dyes
after 1900 ?
(A) Previously developed
dyes did not work on
new types of fibers.
(B) Dyes derived from
petroleum caused
damage to new
synthetic fibers.
(C) New synthetic fibers
required brighter
colors than natural
fibers did.
(D) New fabrics easily lost
their colors when
washed.
58
This is the end of Section 3.
If you finish in less than 55 minutes, check your work on
Section 3 only.
DO NOT read or work on any other section of the test.
When you are ready to check your answers, use the answer
key on page 104 to determine which questions you
answered correctly and incorrectly.
59
Practice Test B
62
In this section of the test, you will have an opportunity to demonstrate your ability to
understand conversations and talks in English. There are 3 parts to this section, with
special instructions for each part. Answer all the questions on the basis of what is
stated or implied by the speakers in this test.
Part A
Directions: In Part A, you will hear short conversations between 2 people. After each
conversation, you will hear a question about the conversation. The conversations and
questions will not be repeated. After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers
in your test book and choose the best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the
number of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer
you have chosen.
Here is an example:
On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer
A B C D
What does the man mean?
In your test book, you read: (A) He does not like the painting either.
(B) He does not know how to paint.
(C) He does not have any paintings.
(D) He does not know what to do.
You learn from the conversation that neither the man nor the woman likes the painting.
The best answer to the question “What does the man mean?” is (A), “He does not like the
painting either.” Therefore, the correct choice is (A).
Now begin work on the questions.
Section 1: Listening Comprehension
1. What does the man mean?
(A) He would like to take a
break.
(B) He thinks the library will
close soon.
(C) He does not want to stop
working.
(D) He does not like coffee.
2. What does the woman imply?
(A) Mary is not going to the
concert.
(B) Mary does not know about
the concert.
(C) The man should call Mary.
(D) The man should go to the
concert without Mary.
3. What can be inferred about the
man?
(A) He bought a new jacket.
(B) He used to have longer hair.
(C) He does not usually wear
glasses.
(D) He wants to introduce the
woman to his friends.
4. What does the woman mean?
(A) She did not know about
the library’s summer
schedule.
(B) The library has only a few
employees in the
summer.
(C) The library is closed in the
summer.
(D) Not many people use the
library in the summer.
5. What does the man mean?
(A) He read an article about
Professor Monroe’s
research.
(B) He does not know Professor
Monroe.
(C) Professor Monroe probably
will talk to the woman.
(D) Professor Monroe does not
like giving interviews.
6. What does the woman imply
about the headphones?
(A) She expects the man to
have them repaired.
(B) She is angry with the man
for forgetting them.
(C) She does not know where
they are.
(D) She would like the man to
return them by tonight.
7. What does the woman imply?
(A) She needs more time to get
ready for the dinner.
(B) She thought the dinner was
at another time.
(C) She forgot about the plans
she made for dinner.
(D) She will not be able to go to
dinner.
8. What will the woman probably
do next?
(A) Cash her paycheck
(B) Lend the man some money
(C) Pay the man back money
she borrowed from him
(D) Help the man look for his
wallet
63
9. What does the man imply?
(A) He will help the woman
prepare her speech.
(B) The woman should prepare
her speech carefully.
(C) The woman is one of the
best speakers in the class.
(D) The speech does not count
toward the final grade for
the course.
10. What does the woman mean?
(A) She likes the view of the
mountains in winter.
(B) She has never been in
Montana.
(C) The man should take a
winter vacation.
(D) The man would not enjoy
living in Montana all year.
11. What does the woman mean?
(A) She does not agree that it is
a stressful time.
(B) She does not feel as calm as
she seems.
(C) She admires the man’s
calmness.
(D) She will help the man to
deal with his stress.
12. What does the man imply?
(A) The woman can have his
old phone.
(B) The woman should not buy
the phone.
(C) The woman should buy the
phone at a different store.
(D) The woman should wait for
the phone to go on sale.
13. What does the man imply?
(A) He went to the bookstore
early.
(B) The line at the bookstore
moves quickly.
(C) Books are cheaper at the
bookstore than online.
(D) The woman does not
have to wait in line at the
bookstore.
14. What does the woman imply
the man should do?
(A) Accept the job offer
(B) Discuss the job offer with a
friend
(C) Apply for a job that is not so
far away
(D) Keep his current job
15. What does the woman say
about her brother?
(A) He is spending too much
time with his friends.
(B) He was in an accident.
(C) He is looking for his friend.
(D) He had a disagreement
with his friend.
16. What can be inferred from the
conversation?
(A) The man is in the wrong
classroom.
(B) The man is sitting in the
wrong seat.
(C) The man forgot to bring his
textbook.
(D) The woman did not attend
the first class.
64
17. What does the woman mean?
(A) She had a difficult time
finding a summer job.
(B) She never had a summer
job before.
(C) She began to enjoy her job
as she gained experience.
(D) Her job became more
stressful as she learned
more about it.
18. What does the man imply?
(A) He does not know Peter.
(B) Peter does not usually eat
lunch.
(C) Peter often behaves the
way he did at lunch.
(D) The woman should invite
Peter to lunch.
19. What will the woman probably
do?
(A) Lend the man an umbrella
(B) Go to the movie by herself
(C) Wait with the man until the
rain stops
(D) Help the man find his
umbrella
20. What does the woman imply?
(A) She is planning to quit her
job at the bookstore.
(B) She will have lunch with
the man in the cafeteria.
(C) The man can save money
by eating in the cafeteria.
(D) The man might be able to
get a job in the cafeteria.
21. What does the man mean?
(A) He spent a month in
Mexico last year.
(B) He is ready to leave for
Mexico.
(C) The woman should
postpone her trip.
(D) The woman should apply
for a passport soon.
22. What will the man probably
do?
(A) Finish his lab report before
the next class
(B) Ask the professor for help
with his lab report
(C) Ask the professor for a
higher grade
(D) Speak to the professor
about the grading
system
23. What does the woman imply
about the bakery?
(A) It lost customers to another
business.
(B) It has a new owner.
(C) It opened only recently.
(D) It stopped selling coffee.
24. What does the man imply?
(A) He did not enjoy living in a
small town.
(B) He is planning to visit his
hometown soon.
(C) He and the woman are
from the same
hometown.
(D) He would like to visit the
woman’s hometown.
65
25. What does the woman want to
know?
(A) Whether the man wants
money for his ticket
(B) Whether the man can see
the play on a different
date
(C) Whether the man needs
more tickets for the play
(D) Whether the man has
already given his ticket to
someone else
26. What does the woman mean?
(A) She recovered from a cold
before the exam period
started.
(B) She is glad she has
managed to stay healthy.
(C) She is relieved she has
already finished all her
exams.
(D) She knows several people
who are not feeling well.
27. What does the man mean?
(A) It is too windy to go on a
boat ride.
(B) The woman should take the
bus.
(C) The sightseeing tour is
worth taking.
(D) He is not familiar with the
sightseeing tour.
28. What does the man mean?
(A) He is pleased that so many
people auditioned.
(B) More people would have
come if the event had
been better organized.
(C) The weather kept some
people from
participating.
(D) The snowstorm was not
as severe as the weather
report had predicted.
29. What will the man probably do
next Friday?
(A) Get a ride to the station
with the woman
(B) Take the woman to the
station
(C) Borrow the woman’s car to
go to the station
(D) Drive his car instead of
taking the train
30. What does the woman imply
the man should do?
(A) Return the lamp to the
store
(B) Have the lamp repaired
(C) Buy different lightbulbs
(D) Borrow a lamp from a
colleague
66
Part B
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear longer conversations. After each
conversation, you will hear several questions. The conversations and questions will not
be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
67
31. What is the conversation mainly
about?
(A) A concert the woman
attended
(B) The man’s collection of CDs
(C) A new software program
(D) An instrument the woman
is learning to play
32. Why did the woman apologize
to the man?
(A) She lost one of his CDs.
(B) She did not invite him to
the concert.
(C) She missed class.
(D) She forgot about a meeting.
33. What is unusual about the
baryton?
(A) It does not need to be
tuned.
(B) It has two sets of strings.
(C) Its pitch is exceptionally
high.
(D) It is played with the hands
and feet.
34. What does the woman want to
borrow from the man?
(A) A baryton
(B) Some CDs
(C) A computer program
(D) His class notes
35. What are the speakers mainly
discussing?
(A) A change in sea turtle
behavior
(B) A form of light pollution
(C) Various ways different
animals perceive light
(D) Ecological building designs
36. What does the professor imply
about polarized light that
occurs in nature?
(A) It is weakest on water
surfaces.
(B) It makes it difficult for
animals to see.
(C) It is needed by many
animals to survive.
(D) It is similar to light from
streetlights.
37. According to the professor,
how do glass buildings affect
wildlife?
(A) They block animals’ view in
their search of food.
(B) They may mislead animals
in their search for water.
(C) Most animals cannot
tolerate their light
reflections.
(D) Many migrating birds fly
into them.
68
Part C
Directions: In this part of the test, you will hear several short talks. After each talk, you
will hear some questions. The talks and the questions will not be repeated.
After you hear a question, read the 4 possible answers in your test book and choose the
best answer. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the
space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Here is an example:
On the recording, you hear: Sample Answer
A B C D
Now listen to a sample question:
In your test book, you read: What is the main pur
pose of the program?
(A)
To demonstrate the latest use of computer
graphics
(B) To discuss the possibility of an economic
depression
(C) To explain the workings of the brain
(D) To dramatize a famous mystery story
The best answer to the question, “What is the main purpose of the program?” is (C), ”To
explain the workings of the brain.” Therefore, the correct answer is (C).
Now listen to another sample question: Sample Answer
A B C D
In your test book, you read: Why does the speaker recommend watching the
program?
(A)
It is required of all science majors.
(B) It will never be shown again.
(C) It can help viewers improve their memory skills.
(D) It will help with course work.
The best answer to the question “Why does the speaker recommend watching the
program?” is (D), “It will help with course work.” Therefore, the correct choice is (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
69
38. What does the professor mainly
discuss?
(A) Differences between
longitudinal studies and
cross-sectional studies
(B) Advantages of cohort
studies over other
research approaches
(C) Differences between child
psychology and adult
psychology
(D) Recent improvements in
research methodologies
39. What question is investigated
by the research studies that the
professor describes?
(A) Whether shyness is a
learned behavior
(B) Whether shyness can affect
children’s learning
(C) Whether many different
factors contribute to
shyness
(D) Whether shyness in
children is related to age
40. What is one of the problems
with longitudinal studies that
the professor mentions?
(A) Their results are difficult to
analyze.
(B) They can be used only in
studies of young
children.
(C) Participants may not be
available for the entire
study.
(D) Researchers do not consider
the results of such
studies reliable.
41. How would a cross-sectional
study observe children?
(A) By observing one group of
children as they grow
(B) By observing groups of
different-aged children at
one point in time
(C) By comparing children’s
behavior at home to their
behavior at school
(D) By comparing children’s
behavior to their parents’
behavior
42. What does the professor mainly
discuss?
(A) Ways in which human
activities affect aquifers
(B) The formation of Earth’s
gravitational field
(C) The impact of Earth’s
gravitational anomalies
on satellites
(D) Variations in Earth’s
gravitational field
70
43. What does the professor
emphasize about the
instruments on the satellites he
mentions?
(A) They were recently
replaced.
(B) They are extremely precise.
(C) Their settings are changed
seasonally.
(D) Their data are used to make
new maps on a daily
basis.
44. According to the professor,
where is Earth’s gravitational
force the strongest?
(A) At sea level
(B) At the equator
(C) On mountaintops
(D) Over aquifers
45. What do gravity anomaly maps
indicate about California’s
agricultural region?
(A) Water levels in aquifers
there are declining.
(B) The region has more
aquifers than previously
thought.
(C) Water-conservation efforts
there are effective.
(D) The region used to be
covered by glaciers.
46. What does the professor say
about climate change?
(A) It is already intensifying
droughts in California.
(B) Its effects are more
significant in areas with
stronger gravity.
(C) It can cause measurable
changes in gravity in
certain areas.
(D) Its impact on sea levels has
not been measured.
47. What is the talk mainly about?
(A) How people in rural areas
preserved food
(B) The construction of
icehouses
(C) An important industry in
the nineteenth century
(D) How improvements in
transportation affected
industry
48. What does the speaker imply
about springhouses?
(A) Only wealthy families had
them.
(B) They were important to the
ice industry.
(C) They were built mostly on
the east coast.
(D) They are no longer in
common use.
71
49. According to the speaker,
what made the ice industry
obsolete?
(A) Modern technology for
the kitchen
(B) Improved transportation
systems
(C) Industrial use of streams
and rivers
(D) Increased temperatures in
many areas
50. What was the purpose of an
icebox?
(A) To keep train engines cool
(B) To preserve perishable
food
(C) To store ice while it was
being transported
(D) To lift blocks of ice from
frozen lakes and ponds
This is the end of Section 1, Listening Comprehension.
Stop work on Section 1.
Read the directions for Section 2 and begin work.
DO NOT read or work on any other section of the test for
the next 25 minutes.
72
73
Time: 25 minutes
This section is designed to measure your ability to recognize language that is appropriate
for standard written English. There are two types of questions in this section, with special
directions for each type.
Structure
Directions: Questions 1-15 are incomplete sentences. Beneath each sentence you
will see four words or phrases, marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Choose the one word or
phrase that best completes the sentence. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number
of the question and fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you
have chosen.
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes they both emit hot liquids from
below the Earth’s surface.
(A) due to
(B) because
(C) in spite of
(D) regardless of
The sentence should read, “Geysers have often been compared to volcanoes because
they both emit hot liquids from below Earth’s surface.” Therefore, you should choose (B).
Example II Sample Answer
A B C D
During the early period of ocean navigation, any need for sophisticated
instruments and techniques.
(A) so that hardly
(B) when there hardly was
(C) hardly was
(D) there was hardly
The sentence should read, “During the early period of ocean navigation, there was
hardly any need for sophisticated instruments and techniques.” Therefore, you should
choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
Section 2: Structure and Written Expression
1. Rhymes result from sound
rather than spelling, and words
neither have to be spelled the
same way look alike in
order to rhyme.
(A) not
(B) and
(C) nor
(D) either
2. The gardenia, about 200
species to tropical and
subtropical countries, was
named in honor of eighteenth-
century naturalist Alexander
Garden.
(A) native of which are
(B) are native of which
(C) which are native of
(D) of which are native
3. Bioethics is the moral
and social implications of
techniques resulting from
advances in the biological
sciences.
(A) study
(B) studied
(C) the study of
(D) the study that
4. When from REM (Rapid
Eye Movement) sleep, a state in
which brain activity resembles
the waking state, they usually
report that they have been
dreaming.
(A) awakened people
(B) people awakening
(C) are people awakening
(D) people are awakened
5. In their designs the Shakers
always sought to a
problem, whether it was a
rocking chair or a steam engine.
(A) the simplest solution
(B) the solution of simplest
(C) the solution that
simplification
(D) which solution simplest
6. Carbohydrates, of the
three principal constituents
of food, form the bulk of the
average human diet.
(A) are one
(B) one that
(C) one
(D) which one
74
7. Eva Gatling directed in
Huntington, New York, from
1962 until 1978.
(A) the Heckscher Museum
(B) the Heckscher Museum was
(C) how the Heckscher
Museum
(D) and the Heckscher Museum
8. Geometrically, the hyperbolic
functions are related to
the hyperbola, the
trigonometric functions are
related to the circle.
(A) just as
(B) same
(C) similar to
(D) and similar
9. United States aviation pioneer
Amelia Earhart set long-
distance flight records.
(A) of several
(B) several the
(C) several
(D) several of
10. The brilliance of the Sun’s disk
makes observations of the
corona and nearby stars
with ordinary telescopes,
except during an eclipse.
(A) impossibility
(B) impossible
(C) they are impossible
(D) are impossible
11. Distantly related to pigs,
the great Indian rhinoceros as
the second largest living land
animal.
(A) rivaling the hippopotamus
(B) the rival of the
hippopotamus
(C) which the hippopotamus
rivals
(D) the hippopotamus rivals
12. Psychologists who study
information processing have
found to identify and
describe several memory
structures and control
processes.
(A) is instructive
(B) instructive
(C) it instructive
(D) as instructive
13. Not until the 1820s part
of the curriculum of Harvard
and Yale universities.
(A) physical education became
(B) physical education had
become
(C) did physical education
become
(D) when physical education
became
75
14. Perhaps even more important
than the accuracy and reliability
of a meteorological instrument
.
(A) that positioning it is correct
(B) is positioned correctly
(C) that its correct position
(D) is that it be positioned
correctly
15. Ellis Island in Upper New York
Bay was the principal reception
center the United States
from 1892 to 1943.
(A) immigrants entered
(B) which immigrants entered
(C) through which immigrants
entered
(D) which immigrants who
entered
76
Written Expression
Directions: In questions 16-40 each sentence has four underlined words or phrases.
The four underlined parts of the sentence are marked (A), (B), (C), and (D). Identify the
one underlined word or phrase that must be changed for the sentence to be correct.
Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and fill in the space that
corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
Guppies are sometimes call rainbow fish due to the bright colors of the males.
A B C D
The sentence should read, “Guppies are sometimes called rainbow fish due to the bright
colors of the males.” Therefore, you should choose (A).
Example II Sample Answer
A B C D
Serving several term in the United States Congress, Shirley Chisholm became a
A B C
respected political figure.
D
The sentence should read, “Serving several terms in the United States Congress, Shirley
Chisholm became a respected political figure.” Therefore, you should choose (B).
Now begin work on the questions.
77
16. The earliest known inhabitants of North America were a people of whose
A B
culture was highly oriented toward music and dance.
C D
17. Write poetry is a craft in which the poet works with words as a carpenter
A B C
works with wood.
D
18. If the circumference of any circle is divided by the circle’s diameter, the
A B
result of the calculation will always the same.
C D
19. The mountains, especially the Rocky Mountains, formerly constituted a
A
seriously barrier to east-west trade in British Columbia.
B C D
20. Earth’s atmosphere is in perpetual motion because differences in solar heating
A B C
that occur between the equator and the poles.
D
21. Research on artificial intelligence began after soon the development of the
A B C
modern digital computer in the 1940s.
D
22. Among 1963 and 1965 United States manufacturers of detergents voluntarily
A B
changed their processes to produce only biodegradable, or soft, detergents.
C D
23. In terms of its size, influence, and visible, the corporation has become the
A B
dominant business form in industrial countries.
C D
78
24. The painting style of the photorealists, which they arose in the late 1960s,
A B
favored such subjects as neon signs, cafeterias, and common urban and
C D
suburban scenes.
25. The Music Division of the Library of Congress in Washington, D.C., was
established in 1897 and has more than six million items in itself collections.
A B C D
26. Scientists cannot agree on a single definition formal of life, although most
A B
people think that they can recognize a living thing when they see it.
C D
27. Success in acting is achieved only by the relatively few persons who combine
A B C
natural talent with well-developed techniques, dedicate, and self-discipline.
D
28. Traditionally, a trial jury in the United States consists of twelve people, often
A B C
with one or two additional jurors, nor alternates.
D
29. Like wood, paper is a hygroscopic material; that is, it absorbs water from, and
A B C
also release water into, the air.
D
30. Several factors responsible for the Oklahoma Dust Bowl of the 1930s were
A B
the character of the soil, the climatic and the types of agriculture practiced.
C D
79
31. Dehydrated food is prepared by removing water from fresh food to yield a
A B
relatively dry, stable product in which the growth of microorganisms are
C D
inhibited.
32. Fireworks, combustible or explosive preparations using for entertainment, were
A B
probably first devised in ancient China.
C D
33. As a dogfish swims, an S-shaped wave passes down its body toward its tail
A B C
to provide many of its forward propulsion.
D
34. Marshes, wetland areas characterized by plant grassy growth, are
A B
distinguished from swamps, wetlands where trees grow.
C D
35. A documentary film shapes factual material and interprets it for purposes of
A B C
education or the entertainment.
D
36. Native to South America and cultivated there for thousands of years, the peanut
A B
is said to have introduced to North America by early explorers.
C D
37. The igloo, a temporarily winter home built by the Inuits of Canada and
A B
Greenland, is generally dome shaped and is usually made from blocks of snow.
C D
80
38. Boston began a series of urban renewal project during the 1960s, emphasizing
A B
renovation and modern architectural styles harmonious with the traditional
C D
buildings.
39. Copper, a soft yellowish-red metal whose use dates back to prehistoric times,
A B
has been mined for over 6,000 years ago.
C D
40. In 1999 astronomers found evidence of six new planets orbiting distant
A
stars, bringing to 28 the number of planets then known to exist out the solar
B C D
system.
This is the end of Section 2.
If you finish before time is called, check your work
on Section 2 only.
DO NOT read or work on any other section of the test.
At the end of 25 minutes, go on to Section 3.
Use exactly 55 minutes to work on Section 3.
81
82
Section 3: Reading Comprehension
Time: 55 Minutes
Directions: In this section you will read several passages. Each one is followed by several
questions about it. For questions 1-50, you are to choose the one best answer, (A), (B), (C),
or (D), to each question. Then, on your answer sheet, find the number of the question and
fill in the space that corresponds to the letter of the answer you have chosen.
Answer all questions following a passage on the basis of what is stated or implied in that
passage.
Read the following sample passage:
The railroad was not the first institution to impose regularity on society, or to
draw attention to the importance of precise timekeeping. For as long as merchants
have set out their wares at daybreak and communal festivities have been celebrated,
people have been in rough agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day. The
value of this tradition is today more apparent than ever. Were it not for public
acceptance of a single yardstick of time, social life would be unbearably chaotic:
the massive daily transfers of goods, services, and information would proceed in
fits and starts; the very fabric of modern society would begin to unravel.
Example I Sample Answer
A B C D
What is the main idea of the passage?
(A) In modern society we must make more time for our neighbors.
(B) The traditions of society are timeless.
(C) An accepted way of measuring time is essential for the smooth
functioning of society.
(D) Society judges people by the times at which they conduct certain
activities.
The main idea of the passage is that societies need to agree about how time is to be
measured in order to function smoothly. Therefore, you should choose (C).
Line
5
Example II Sample Answer
A B C D
In line 5, the phrase “this tradition” refers to
(A) the practice of starting the business day at dawn
(B) friendly relations between neighbors
(C) the railroad’s reliance on time schedules
(D) people’s agreement on the measurement of time
The phrase “this tradition” refers to the preceding clause, “people have been in rough
agreement with their neighbors as to the time of day.” Therefore, you should choose (D).
Now begin work on the questions.
83
Questions 1-10
The first maps of Venus were made using radar beams transmitted from Earth.
Radar was the only way to map its surface, because the clouds on Venus are so thick
that the surface cannot be seen through them. The results of these early attempts at
mapping were relatively crude and difficult to interpret, although the regions known as
Alpha and Beta Regiones were discovered.
The first direct view of the surface came from probes, which were landed on Venus
in 1975 by the spacecraft Venera 9 and 10, and showed a dry rock-strewn surface.
Maps of the surface improved dramatically in 1978, when the Pioneer-Venus 1
spacecraft went into orbit around Venus, equipped with a radar altimeter. It showed
huge rolling plains stretching right around the planet, some lowland areas, and
two highland regions called Ishtar and Aphrodite. The peaks of the highest mountains,
Maxwell Montes, in the eastern part of Ishtar, were found to be 12,000 meters above
the general surface level, so they are appreciably higher than the Himalayas. Aphrodite,
which is larger than Ishtar, has a vast rift valley at its eastern end nearly 3,000 meters
deep, 2,200 kilometers long, and 280 kilometers wide. Two shield volcanoes, broad
volcanoes formed of successive outpourings of lava, which are much larger than any
found on Earth, were also found isolated from the two upland areas. Six years later a
great many impact craters and small volcanoes were found by Venera 15 and
16 orbiters.
Later yet, the Magellan spacecraft entered orbit around Venus in August 1990, and
over the next two years completed a detailed radar mapping of the surface. It found that
the surface is mostly volcanic, with large lava-flooded plains and thousands of
volcanoes. There are also signs of tectonic activity, which has caused, for example,
multiple faulting and deep fractures. There are a number of rift valleys, some of which
have been partly flooded by molten lava, and a number of impact craters, the density of
which has enabled the ages of various areas to be estimated. The absence of impact
craters in an area suggests an age of no more than a few tens of millions of years.
Line
5
10
15
20
25
84
1. The passage mainly discusses
how
(A) radar technology improved
over time
(B) the surface of Venus
compares to Earth’s
surface
(C) the age of Venus was
determined scientifically
(D) knowledge about the
surface of Venus was
obtained
2. The passage mentions that
radar beams were used to
obtain the first maps of Venus
because they
(A) allowed for mapping more
than the two regions
already familiar to
scientists
(B) could penetrate the clouds
that concealed the
surface of Venus
(C) were the least expensive
method of mapping at
the time
(D) could be transmitted easily
from Earth
3. The word “equipped” in line 9 is
closest in meaning to
(A) selected
(B) adjusted
(C) inspected
(D) furnished
4. The author discusses Maxwell
Montes together with the
Himalayas in the passage in
order to
(A) indicate their similar
composition
(B) establish the height of
Maxwell Montes
(C) indicate that the terrain on
Earth resembles the
terrain on Venus
(D) compare the origins of the
two mountain ranges
5. The word “appreciably” in
line 13 is closest in meaning to
(A) surprisingly
(B) probably
(C) noticeably
(D) consistently
6. The word “vast” in line 14 is
closest in meaning to
(A) extensive
(B) remote
(C) obvious
(D) raised
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
85
7. The word “isolated” in line 17 is
closest in meaning to
(A) surrounded
(B) separated
(C) accumulated
(D) elevated
8. Pioneer-Venus 1 discovered
that Venus had all of the
following features EXCEPT
(A) impact craters
(B) lowlands
(C) mountains
(D) shield volcanoes
9. The Magellan spacecraft
discovered that most of the
surface of Venus is covered with
(A) faults and fractures
(B) rift valleys
(C) lava and volcanoes
(D) impact craters
10. It can be inferred from the
passage that scientists use the
density of impact craters on
Venus to determine which of
the following?
(A) The cause of the faults and
fractures
(B) The age of different areas
of the planet’s surface
(C) The areas that are most
geologically active
(D) The amount of flooding of
rift valley areas
86
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
87
Questions 11-19
In the United States, many social reformers in the late nineteenth century
demonstrated a concern for improved housing conditions for workers. George Pullman
(1831-1897), the wealthy industrialist who introduced luxury railway cars with beds,
built his model city called Pullman in 1880 to address housing problems caused by
Chicago’s industrialization. In constructing the town, Pullman hoped to produce an
ideal environment that would help attract workers of a superior type to the railway car
industry and retain them. Pullman inhabitants were expected to embody values of
thrift, industry, and morality. They were taught to develop propriety and good manners,
cleanliness and neatness of appearance, diligence, and self-improvement through
education and savings. Like the brick clock tower that dominated the town center,
Pullman kept a regulatory eye on his workers.
In its first five years, this new experiment in industrial life received little criticism,
except from radical political groups. Crediting the town of Pullman with producing a
new type of dependable and ambitious worker in a rationally ordered environment,
reformers, at first, praised it as a successful model for modern industrial life. However,
after 1885, with the high gloss of the experiment dulled, it became clear that the
residents of Pullman had honest grievances about the overcharging of rent and other
services.
In 1893, The World’s Columbian Exposition, an exhibition that aimed to promote
American cultural, economic, and technological development, and in which
George Pullman was a major investor, was held in Chicago. The town of Pullman
became a popular tourist stop, attracting more than its share of curious travelers.
There were 10,000 foreign visitors alone during the exposition year. In fact, the
first Baedeker Travel Guide to the United States advised visitors to tour Pullman.
Frequent trains and trolley cars connected the fairgrounds of the exposition with the
town, and on several occasions, George Pullman himself guided the tours. Constructing
a fantastic environment for the benefit of tourists, he made sure that any real tensions
between his office and the working inhabitants of the town were rendered invisible to
the tourist gaze.
Line
5
10
15
20
25
88
11. What does the passage mainly
discuss?
(A) The effect of
industrialization on the
city of Pullman
(B) The model city built by
George Pullman
(C) The career of George
Pullman
(D) Housing problems in the
nineteenth century
12. According to the passage,
which of the following led to
the creation of the town of
Pullman?
(A) A surplus of railway workers
in Chicago
(B) Housing problems caused
by industrialization
(C) George Pullman’s decision
to stop producing railway
cars
(D) The opening of the World’s
Columbian Exposition
13. According to the passage,
George Pullman expected that
the city of Pullman would
(A) impress social reformers
(B) satisfy radical political
groups
(C) soon develop housing
problems
(D) draw workers to the railway
car industry
14. The word “retain” in line 7 is
closest in meaning to
(A) house
(B) train
(C) keep
(D) reward
15. According to the passage,
Pullman inhabitants were
taught to do all of the following
EXCEPT
(A) have good manners
(B) become active in town
politics
(C) value education
(D) save money
16. What does the author imply
about George Pullman’s
attitude toward his workers in
line 11 ?
(A) Pullman believed that his
workers should follow a
strict daily schedule.
(B) Pullman felt that his
workers required
careful monitoring and
supervision.
(C) Pullman thought that
individual workers could
be taught to work
together as a team.
(D) Pullman believed that
his workers had trouble
keeping track of the time
they spent on a task.
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
89
17. The word “grievances” in line 17
is closest in meaning to
(A) stories
(B) opinions
(C) findings
(D) complaints
18. According to the passage,
what did George Pullman do to
promote tourism in the town of
Pullman?
(A) He personally showed
tourists around the town.
(B) He published a travel guide
to the town.
(C) He started to invest
in the town’s cultural
development.
(D) He built a new road
connecting it to the
World’s Columbian
Exposition.
19. The passage suggests that
George Pullman worked to hide
which of the following from
tourists?
(A) His role as an investor in
the World’s Columbian
Exposition
(B) His conflicts with the
inhabitants of the town
of Pullman
(C) His efforts to promote the
town of Pullman
(D) His lack of knowledge
about how the
inhabitants of Pullman
really lived
90
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
91
Questions 20-29
In the 1820s, the exhaustion of commercial oyster beds along the northeastern coast
set the stage for the industry that would shift the Chesapeake Bay region located in
the southern state of Maryland forever from an underdeveloped subsistence economy,
and define its culture for the next 150 years. In the early nineteenth century, the
Chesapeake oyster beds, perhaps the world’s richest trove of the shellfish, were
discovered. Following the Civil War in 1865, the exploitation built to the fever pitch
of a gold rush. More than 1,000 sail craft, including four-masted schooners, sloops,
pungeys, and bugeyes, dragged heavy iron dredges ceaselessly across the “rocks,”
as the reeflike agglomerations of the shellfish were called, catching oysters by the
hundreds of bushels a day.
At the height of this activity, the Chesapeake region probably was less isolated than
at any time in its history, including present times. In 1886, the oyster harvest peaked
in Maryland at some 15 million bushels, an annual production of edible meat equal to
the yield from 160,000 head of cattle. The oyster fleet employed a fifth of everyone
involved in fishing in the United States. Oyster captains ruled the waves, outgunning
attempts to enforce even modest conservation by the Maryland Oyster Navy, charged
with policing the oyster beds. On the positive side, the oyster industry of this era used
its political clout to force the nearby city of Baltimore to construct the nation’s most
modern sewage treatment plant to protect the water quality of the bay. So intense was
the oystering that it eventually altered the physical shape of the bay’s bottom, breaking
apart the reefs in which oysters naturally grew. Studies comparing old charts of the bay
bottom to new bathymetric surveys have found a dramatic flattening of original bottom
contours. This made oysters more susceptible to silting over, and perhaps more
vulnerable to the diseases that now plague them—though this latter is still speculative.
As harvests slid from the unsustainable peaks of the 1880s never to return, people
involved in harvesting oysters sought an easy-to-build, cheaper alternative to the big
sail dredge craft which would require fewer crew. What evolved was a beamy vessel,
usually 38 to 55 feet long, the bottom made with simple crosswise planking. It could
be built by a good backyard carpenter, and hundreds were.
Line
5
10
15
20
25
92
20. What does the passage mainly
discuss?
(A) The oyster industry in the
Chesapeake Bay region
(B) The subsistence economy
of the Chesapeake Bay
region
(C) The exhaustion of
commercial oyster beds
along the northeastern
coast
(D) Sail craft used in the fishing
industry of the
nineteenth century
21. The word “its” in line 4 refers to
(A) the northeastern coast
(B) Maryland
(C) subsistence economy
(D) the Chesapeake Bay region
22. The author mentions “a gold
rush” in line 7 in order to
(A) illustrate that oysters were
very expensive
(B) imply that oystering
had a greater impact on
Maryland’s economy than
mining gold
(C) explain that the new oyster
beds were discovered
while deposits of gold
were being studied
(D) compare the exploiting
of the new oyster beds
with the excitement of
discovering gold
23. According to the passage, what
year was the Chesapeake Bay
oyster harvest the largest?
(A) 1820
(B) 1865
(C) 1880
(D) 1886
24. The word “clout” in line 18 is
closest in meaning to
(A) belief
(B) influence
(C) information
(D) division
25. According to the second
paragraph, which of the
following was a beneficial effect
of the oyster industry?
(A) Oyster fleets increased pay
for fishers by one-fifth.
(B) Baltimore constructed
a modern sewage
treatment plant to keep
the Chesapeake Bay
clean.
(C) Conservation measures
were enforced to protect
the reefs where oysters
grew.
(D) The people of Maryland
gained access to a more
nutritious diet including
a large quantity of oyster
meat.
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
93
26. According to the second
paragraph, which of the
following has been revealed
by bathymetric surveys of the
Chesapeake Bay?
(A) The bottom of the bay has
been radically altered by
oyster harvesting.
(B) Oysters are still available,
but current equipment is
unable to harvest them.
(C) Oysters have adapted well
to significant changes in
their environment.
(D) New reefs have formed for
oysters to grow in.
27. The word “speculative” in line 24
is closest in meaning to
(A) radical
(B) popular
(C) theoretical
(D) temporary
28. It can be inferred from the
author’s description of the
beamy vessel in the third
paragraph that this boat was
(A) made from planking
recovered from old oyster
boats
(B) relatively simple in design
(C) rarely used on Chesapeake
Bay
(D) able to handle heavy
dredges better than
earlier boats had
29. It can be inferred from the
passage that the Chesapeake
Bay oyster beds were similar
to the oyster beds along the
northeastern coast in that they
(A) were discovered following
the Civil War
(B) were fished primarily by
large sail craft that were
operated by the state
government
(C) eventually became less
productive than they had
been in the past
(D) gradually expanded in
spite of diseases carried
by polluted waters
94
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
95
Questions 30-40
Except for flies, all flying insects have two pairs of wings, one of which is attached
to the upper mesothorax and the other to the upper metathorax. It is likely that their
wings originated as flaps that could be extended from the thorax, allowing wingless
insects to escape danger by leaping from an elevated perch and gliding some distance
away. Insect wings are unique, having evolved specifically for flight, while the wings
of birds and bats are merely modifications of preexisting limbs.
The earliest insects known to be capable of true flight had two pairs of wings that
remained extended and did not fold, even when the creature was at rest. Each pair
flapped independently of the other pair, a contemporary parallel to this feature being
found in the wings of dragonflies, which are members of a primitive but common order
of insects. Many advanced insects, such as beetles, butterflies, and wasps, have evolved
means to link their forewings and hind wings to form two coordinated flight surfaces
rather than four.
Most insect wings are laced with veins. These are distinct ridges, the pattern of
which is often critical to the identification of individual species. The spaces between
the veins are called cells; those extending to the wing margin are open cells, and those
enclosed by veins on all sides are closed cells. Adult insects that emerge from a pupa
have wings that at first look crumpled and useless. Extensions of the tracheal
respiratory system run through the veins, and blood circulates in the spaces around the
tracheae. As air is pumped through the veins, the wings of these newly emerged insects
unfurl and straighten. As the veins harden, they provide both strength and a degree of
flexibility, and the wings become capable of sustaining flight.
The veins of the wings tend to be thicker and stronger near the body and along the
forward, or leading, edge and thinner and more flexible near the tip and along the
trailing edge. The trailing edge curls on both the upstroke and the downstroke, pushing
against the air behind it and producing not only lift but forward propulsion and reduced
drag.
Line
5
10
15
20
25
96
30. The wings of insects are
compared to the wings of birds
and bats in terms of
(A) their size
(B) the way they evolved
(C) their point of attachment
to the thorax
(D) their role in the survival of
the species
31. Which of the following is a
characteristic of the earliest
insects known to be capable of
true flight?
(A) They had one pair of
wings.
(B) Their wings were only
folded when at rest.
(C) Both pairs of wings moved
at the same time.
(D) Their wings were always
extended.
32. The author mentions
dragonflies in the second
paragraph as an example of
insects whose wings are
(A) not symmetrical in design
(B) commonly found in
advanced insects
(C) similar to those of the
earliest insects
(D) capable of circular
movements
33. The word “link” in line 12 is
closest in meaning to
(A) join
(B) stop
(C) reduce
(D) flatten
34. According to the passage, how
do the veins of insect wings
differ among species?
(A) Some species do not have
spaces between the
veins.
(B) Veins are difficult to see in
some species.
(C) Different species have
different patterns of
veins.
(D) Some species do not
pump air through the
veins.
35. Where can open cells be found?
(A) At the edge of the wings
(B) In the middle of the wings
(C) In the veins
(D) In the blood
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
97
36. The word “they” in line 21 refers
to
(A) spaces
(B) wings
(C) insects
(D) veins
37. How do the forward and
trailing edges of insect wings
differ?
(A) There are fewer veins in the
trailing edge.
(B) They have veins of different
thicknesses.
(C) Only the forward edge
produces forward
movement.
(D) One curls on the upstroke
and the other curls on
the downstroke.
38. The word “flexible” in line 24 is
closest in meaning to
(A) pointed
(B) weak
(C) able to expand
(D) able to bend
39. Which of the following can
be inferred from the passage
about the capabilities of an
adult insect that has recently
emerged from the pupa?
(A) It cannot fly immediately.
(B) It has difficulty breathing.
(C) It uses its wings for balance.
(D) It cannot remain upright.
40. Which of the following aspects
of insects that can fly is NOT
discussed in the passage?
(A) The origin of their wings
(B) Their movements while in
flight
(C) The physical structure of
their wings
(D) The speed at which they
can fly
98
Section 3 continues.
Turn the page and read the next passage.
99
Questions 41-50
Viewed from a formalist perspective, art is appreciated for the enlivening aesthetic
experience its visual form can provide. The name formalism stems from the primary
focus of this perspective on the artistic form of the work: its line, shape, color, texture,
and composition. For the formalist, art is to be valued for its artistic qualities, separate
from its connection to the larger world. In the case of a film, the viewer would
concentrate on its formal qualities (for instance, camera compositions, editing rhythms,
settings, lighting effects, dialogue, and sound track) while ignoring the film’s
contextual relationships to social and political issues. It is believed that such
“nonartistic” considerations only detract from the aesthetic experience the work’s
artistic form can provide. Although the formalist approach pares away history,
morality, and virtually everything other than color, shape, technique, and composition,
this approach does get the viewer to look closely and respond with feeling to the
artwork’s sensuous qualities.
In contrast to formalism, contextualism is concerned with the appreciation of art
“in context,” that is, in relation to the rest of life. Like a wide-angle camera shot,
contextualism takes in the big picture. Everything that surrounds and relates to the
artwork is relevant: the viewer; the artist; the physical setting of the work; and the art,
culture, and society that gave birth to it. For the contextualist, a full appreciation of a
film is impossible without information about its director and the director’s creative
process, as well as knowledge about the era and the culture of the country in which the
film was made. The strong point of the contextualist approach is its ability to expand
the viewer’s understanding of the work in relation to the larger world. In contrast to the
reductive focus of formalism, contextualism offers the viewer many ways of looking at
and giving meaning to the artwork. Its major limitation, the formalists say, stems from
its primary concern with facts and theories. They argue that contextualists can often
emphasize fact-finding and theorizing to the exclusion of any sensuous response to the
work of art.
Line
5
10
15
20
25
100
41. What is the passage mainly
about?
(A) Formalist and contextualist
issues reflected in visual
art
(B) Appreciation of artistic
qualities in film
(C) Formalist and contextualist
points of view on art
(D) Limitations of modern
theories of art
42. According to the first
paragraph, a formalist evaluates
a work of art in terms of
(A) “nonartistic” considerations
that enhance the
aesthetic experience of
the artwork
(B) purely aesthetic aspects of
the artwork
(C) the relationship of the
artwork to social and
political matters
(D) the historical accuracy of
the artist’s treatment of
the subject of the
artwork
43. The first paragraph mentions all
of the following as examples of
artistic form EXCEPT
(A) texture
(B) color
(C) morality
(D) shape
44. The phrase “concentrate on” in
line 6 is closest in meaning to
(A) memorize
(B) focus on
(C) experiment with
(D) criticize
45. Which of the following would
most likely be a topic of
discussion in a formalist analysis
of a painting?
(A) The artistic techniques used
in the painting
(B) The social background of
the artist
(C) The place where the piece
was painted
(D) The impact of the painting
on society
46. The author makes a comparison
between a “wide-angle camera
shot” (line 15) and the way that
contextualists
(A) utilize a large range of
artistic styles
(B) interpret the formal aspects
of art
(C) study various influences on
a work of art
(D) emphasize aesthetic
experience
The questions for this passage continue on the
next page.
101
47. The word “it” in line 18 refers to
(A) artwork
(B) physical setting
(C) culture
(D) society
48. The word “era” in line 20 is
closest in meaning to
(A) character
(B) development
(C) period
(D) role
49. The phrase “stems from” in
line 24 is closest in meaning to
(A) grows out of
(B) turns into
(C) runs up against
(D) argues for
50. According to the second
paragraph, formalists claim
that the weakest aspect of
contextualism is which of the
following?
(A) Its reductive focus
(B) Its concentration on
appealing to the viewer’s
senses
(C) Its inability to offer a viewer
more than one way of
looking at art
(D) Its primary concern with
facts and theories
This is the end of Section 3.
If you finish in less than 55 minutes, check your work on
Section 3 only.
DO NOT read or work on any other section of the test.
When you are ready to check your answers, use the answer
key on page 105 to determine which questions you
answered correctly and incorrectly.
102
Review Materials
104
Answer Keys
Practice Test B - Answer Key
Section 1 Section 2 Section 3
Practice Test A - Answer Key
Section 1 Section 2 Section 3
■
Use the answer keys below to determine which questions you answered correctly and
incorrectly.
■ Photocopy or tear out the script for Practice Test A or B on pages 106-137 and place it
next to the test questions so you can see the 4 answer choices.
■ Replay the audio while reading the script to help you recognize words you may not
have understood correctly.
1 C
2 D
3 B
4 C
5 D
6 A
7 B
8 B
9 C
10 D
11 A
12 C
13 C
14 C
15 B
16 C
17 D
18 A
19 D
20 B
21 C
22 D
23 A
24 B
25 C
26 A
27 A
28 D
29 A
30 C
31 B
32 A
33 A
34 B
35 D
36 A
37 C
38 A
39 C
40 C
41 A
42 C
43 B
44 D
45 A
46 D
47 D
48 A
49 B
50 B
1 C
2 B
3 A
4 A
5 B
6 C
7 C
8 A
9 A
10 B
11 B
12 B
13 C
14 D
15 D
16 B
17 A
18 D
19 A
20 A
21 C
22 C
23 C
24 D
25 C
26 A
27 A
28 C
29 A
30 A
31 B
32 D
33 D
34 C
35 D
36 D
37 B
38 B
39 D
40 C
41 B
42 A
43 D
44 C
45 A
46 A
47 C
48 C
49 D
50 A
1 D
2 C
3 A
4 A
5 C
6 B
7 B
8 D
9 A
10 A
11 C
12 A
13 A
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 A
18 D
19 A
20 B
21 D
22 A
23 A
24 C
25 A
26 C
27 B
28 A
29 D
30 B
31 A
32 C
33 B
34 A
35 C
36 C
37 B
38 C
39 D
40 C
105
Answer Keys
Practice Test B - Answer Key
Section 1 Section 2 Section 3
1 A
2 C
3 B
4 D
5 C
6 D
7 D
8 B
9 B
10 D
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 A
15 D
16 B
17 C
18 C
19 A
20 D
21 D
22 D
23 A
24 A
25 A
26 B
27 C
28 C
29 A
30 A
31 A
32 D
33 B
34 B
35 B
36 C
37 B
38 A
39 D
40 C
41 B
42 D
43 B
44 C
45 A
46 C
47 C
48 D
49 A
50 B
1 D
2 B
3 D
4 B
5 C
6 A
7 B
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 B
12 B
13 D
14 C
15 B
16 B
17 D
18 A
19 B
20 A
21 D
22 D
23 D
24 B
25 B
26 A
27 C
28 B
29 C
30 B
31 D
32 C
33 A
34 C
35 A
36 D
37 B
38 D
39 A
40 D
41 C
42 B
43 C
44 B
45 A
46 C
47 A
48 C
49 A
50 D
1 C
2 D
3 C
4 D
5 A
6 C
7 A
8 A
9 C
10 B
11 D
12 C
13 C
14 D
15 C
16 B
17 A
18 D
19 B
20 B
21 B
22 A
23 B
24 A
25 D
26 A
27 D
28 D
29 D
30 C
31 D
32 B
33 D
34 B
35 D
36 D
37 A
38 A
39 D
40 D
106
Part A
1. (man) Have you seen my calculator? It was right here a minute ago.
(woman) Did you look under your book? I’m always losing things that way.
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
2. (woman) I really wanna take astronomy, but my courseload this spring is too
heavy already.
(man) The summer session might be a good idea, since you’ll be working
on campus anyway.
(narrator) What does the man suggest the woman do?
3. (man) Professor Clark, I’d like to repeat the experiment from last class. Is
there a possibility I could use the lab over the weekend?
(woman) It’ll be locked, but you can get the key from the security office.
Make sure you return it when you’re finished.
(narrator) What does the woman imply about the man?
4. (woman) I really like your sweatshirt! I don’t think I’ve ever seen a design like
that before.
(man) Yeah, it’s pretty cool, isn’t it? My parents were in Japan last year and
brought it back for me.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
5. (man) Are you free tonight? I’m meeting a few friends at the restaurant
on Main Street.
(woman) Oh, I’d love to. But I already have dinner plans for tonight. Another
time perhaps.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
6. (woman) I just registered for the research conference—the deadline is
tomorrow. It doesn’t take long though—you simply go to the
conference Web site.
(man) I guess I’d better do that today, huh? I have a little time before I
teach my next class.
(narrator) What can be inferred about the man?
Listening Comprehension Script–Practice Test A
7. (man) That’s a great bike! Where’d you get it?
(woman) You know that sporting goods store on Harrison Street–they’ve
been running tremendous sales all summer!
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
8. (man) So, how much was your plane ticket?
(woman) More than I could really afford—I had to dip into my savings.
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
9. (man) Professor Jones, we had a power failure in my dorm last night, so I
wasn’t able to finish my paper. Could I hand it in tomorrow?
(woman) I understand that things sometimes do come up, but I don’t
make any exceptions. I made that clear in the first class… and the
library was open till midnight…
(narrator) What does the professor mean?
10. (woman) I’m thinking of moving off-campus next semester, but since I don’t
have a car, I’d need to stay pretty close by. Any suggestions?
(man) It just so happens the people who live downstairs from me are
moving next month, so their apartment might be available, and
it’s only a block away from the university. If you’re interested, I’ll
look into it for you.
(narrator) What can inferred about the man?
11. (man) What an awful movie! A total waste of time!
(woman) You can say that again!
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
12. (woman) I hear your sister got into a prestigious university. I bet she was
checking her mail every day for her acceptance letter.
(man) Yes, she was a little nervous until she found out last week.
(narrator) What does the man imply about his sister?
Listening Comprehension Script–Practice Test A
107
13. (man) I’m really sorry I’m late for the meeting. My car wouldn’t start, and I
had to take the bus.
(woman) That’s okay. We’re still waiting for Mark.
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
14. (woman) Wow, you seem to be in a really good mood today. What’s the
secret?
(man) Dunno. I guess some mornings you wake up feeling great, and
some mornings you don’t.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
15. (man) I’d think twice about taking a history class next year. There’s not a
single good professor in the whole history department.
(woman) Look. That’s what you said last semester about the sociology
department. And I’m very glad I didn’t pay any attention to what
you said.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
16. (woman) I know we’re supposed to meet at five in the library, but
something came up unexpectedly. Would you mind changing it
to six?
(man) Not at all. My schedule’s very flexible.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
17. (woman) Can you believe it? A 20-page term paper and a final exam. What
does Professor Johnson think? That we don’t have any classes but
his?
(man) Wait a second. I’m sure he said it was either one or the other.
(narrator) What does the man imply?
18. (woman) I’m really happy I got that athletic scholarship, but I’m
embarrassed by the big fuss all my friends are making.
(man) Well it is quite an accomplishment. Of course your friends are
happy for you!
(narrator) What does the man mean?
108
19. (man) My computer screen is flashing… and I can’t get it to stop.
(woman) Oh, a similar thing happened to me the other day. I’ll bet together
we can figure out what to do.
(narrator) What will the woman probably do next?
20. (woman) There’s quite a crowd at the health center today. I’m surprised so
many people are interested in getting a free blood pressure test.
(man) Come to think of it, I haven’t had mine checked in a while. Guess I’ll
go get in line…
(narrator) What does the man mean?
21. (man) I can’t believe I actually graduated and I’m leaving tonight. I
enjoyed studying with you this semester.
(woman) Same here. And hey—don’t forget to drop me a line once in a
while. Let me know how the new job goes.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
22. (man) Look at the fancy pen I just found under this bench. It looks
expensive.
(woman) Oh. So THAT’s where it went!
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
23. (man) I don’t know what I was thinking of when I gave you those
directions.
(woman) Oh, don’t worry about it. I made it before the conference began. I
didn’t have to drive that much out of my way.
(narrator) What can be inferred from this conversation?
24. (man) Now that you’ve had a chance to read our proposal to renovate
the campus café, do you think the university will approve it?
(woman) Actually, I’ve been so busy, I haven’t had a chance to look at it yet.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
109
25. (man) Wow, I’ve already taken one of those pills for my headache, but it’s
still bothering me.
(woman) Well, why not take another? The recommended dose is one or two,
depending on how bad it is.
(narrator) What does the woman suggest the man do?
26. (woman) What’s Phil doing here? I thought he was taking the fall semester
off.
(man) Didn’t you hear that his parents talked him out of it?
(narrator) What does the man imply about Phil?
27. (man) A florist told me that if I want to keep flowers looking fresh, I
should cut a bit off the stems before putting them in water. I
wonder if it really works…
(woman) Someone told me the same thing and the bouquet I had did last
longer. Anyway, it can’t hurt, can it?
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
28. (woman) That was a fascinating lecture, but the questions from the
audience afterward were mostly irrelevant to the topic!
(man) Yes, I totally agree. I would’ve preferred less of that and more of the
speaker.
(narrator) What does the man imply?
29. (woman) I just found out my dentist retired last month. Do you have one
you’d recommend?
(man) Yeah. In fact, I have a checkup there next week. Say, I’ve even got
his card with me, if you want to wait a minute while I get it out.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
30. (man) Tomorrow I have my big presentation in anthropology class… I’m
really worried about speaking in front of the class.
(woman) You always say that, and then you always do really well. You have
nothing to worry about.
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
110
This is the end of Part A.
111
Part B
Questions 31 through 34: Listen to a conversation between two students.
(man) So how was the singing competition last weekend?
(woman) You don’t wanna know.
(man) What d’ya mean? Wasn’t it near the beach?… That should’ve been
fun!
(woman) It should’ve been fun, but we only came in second place… not
only that, but we weren’t even really able to enjoy the beach
either.
(man) Hold on—you’re upset about finishing second? How many singing
groups competed?
(woman) About 30. I know second place sounds okay, but that’s three years
in a row we’ve been in second, and it’s the same group that’s
beaten us three years in a row.
(man) That’s too bad… but what about the beach?… I ended up
spending a lot of time studying in the library. I would have loved
to be at the beach swimming in the ocean or playing beach
volleyball instead of being stuck in the library studying.
(woman) Well, it wasn’t exactly like that. I had to spend some time studying,
too. We really didn’t have much free time. We were scheduled
almost the whole time—practicing, performing, or watching the
competition.
(man) So you were that busy?
(woman) Yeah, but y’know the ocean water’s still cold, so I don’t think we
really missed too much.
(man) Well, maybe you guys should plan to go back when the semester’s
over.
(woman) Yep, that’s exactly what we have in mind. It should be a lot more
fun there when the weather warms up—and we don’t have to
think about competing.
112
31. What are the students mainly discussing?
32. What does the woman say about the winners of the competition?
33. How did the man spend his weekend?
34. What does the woman say about her weekend schedule?
113
Questions 35 through 37: Listen to a conversation between a student and an art
professor.
(woman) Professor, I really like those sculptures by Brancusi. They have such
simple, elegant lines.
(man) Yes, they do.
(woman) Were there any other sculptors doing work like that?
(man) Well, yes, there was a sculptor named Isamu Noguchi. Noguchi
actually worked in Brancusi’s studio for a time, so Brancusi was
one of several important influences on his work.
(woman) Okay…
(man) Noguchi was born in 1904, in California. His mother was an
American writer, and his father was a Japanese poet… And during
his childhood, Noguchi lived in Japan. And when his mother hired
a carpenter to build a house there, Noguchi helped out, and in
the process came to love working with wood and other natural
materials.
(woman) Okay…
(man) Later, he returned to the United States and became an artist, then
went to Paris, where he worked for Brancusi.
(woman) So Brancusi taught him the art of sculpting?
(man) Yes—and a commitment to strict economy in his art.
(woman) Economy?
(man) Yes, but not in the usual financial sense. In this case, the term
“economy” refers to stripping away unnecessary details,
emphasizing the artwork’s basic form.
(woman) Oh, okay.
(man) Also, after Noguchi had studied under Brancusi for awhile, he
took a trip back to Japan. And on that trip, he studied some
traditional Japanese gardens, and he noticed how stone was used
to create a very simple, but elegant open space. So these gardens
halfway around the world actually shared some of the defining
characteristics of Brancusi’s sculptures.
(woman) And probably reinforced and, like, further shaped the concept of
economy in Noguchi’s mind.
(man) Undoubtedly.
114
35. What is the conversation mainly about?
36. What kind of work did Noguchi’s father do?
37. According to the professor, what did Noguchi learn to do when he was a child
in Japan?
This is the end of Part B.
115
Part C
Questions 38 through 41: Listen to part of a lecture in a marketing class.
(man) Senses play an important role in consumer decision-making.
Shoppers like to… sniff a piece of fish… or listen to a stereo
before buying it. But the power of touch was not fully understood
by researchers until recently. Evidence is showing that consumers
who’re able to handle merchandise are more likely to buy it—and
pay more for it.
Shoppers touch for various reasons. There’s fact-finding touch, like
turning a food container to read the list of ingredients; or picking
an item up to assess its specific attributes, such as weight, texture,
or temperature. There’s also touch for its own sake… ’cause it feels
nice to, say, run your fingers along a shiny table.
Psychologically, touching an item fosters a sense of ownership,
which makes it more difficult to resist buying it. So it makes sense
when retailers display sweaters on shelves rather than in protective
plastic bags. One unexpected finding of this research is that—in
terms of generating sales—imagined touch is just as effective as
actual touch. That’s good to know if you’re writing descriptions of
items sold online!
The need to touch varies; shoppers whose need to touch is
high… they tend to buy more when touching is encouraged. In
one experiment, researchers placed a “Feel the freshness” sign on a
fruit display. All shoppers were more likely to touch the fruit when
the sign was there than when it wasn’t. But shoppers who ranked
higher in the need to touch were more likely to buy the fruit they
touched.
116
38. What is the main purpose of the lecture?
39. According to the professor, what psychological feeling do shoppers tend to
have when they touch an item of merchandise?
40. What does the professor imply about marketers who sell items online?
41. What does the professor emphasize as an important characteristic of shoppers?
117
Questions 42 through 46: Listen to a part of a talk in a history class.
(woman) Let me warn you against a mistake that historians often make—
they sometimes assume that people in the past used the same
concepts we do.
There’s a wonderful example that made news in the history of
mathematics a while ago. It concerns an ancient Mesopotamian
tablet that had some calculations on it—sophisticated calculations
that looked like measurements of triangles…so that’s what many
historians assumed they were. And if the Mesopotamians knew
how to use these calculations—and historians started thinking
that they did—that meant their math was incredibly advanced.
Well, it turns out that the idea that Mesopotamians used
sophisticated methods to calculate the measurements of triangles
is probably wrong. Why do we think that? Because we discovered
that Mesopotamians didn’t know how to measure angles, which
is a crucial element in the whole process of triangle calculations.
Apparently the Mesopotamians had a number of other uses for
the calculations on the tablet. These other uses were important,
but they were not related to triangles. And so these tablets, in
all likelihood, were practice sheets, if you like, for doing math
exercises. In all likelihood, it was the ancient Greeks who first
calculated the measurements of triangles. And this was hundreds
of years after the Mesopotamians.
118
42. What is the main purpose of the talk?
43. What was on the Mesopotamian tablet mentioned in the talk?
44. According to the professor, what had been assumed about the Mesopotamians?
45. According to the professor, how was the tablet most likely used by the
Mesopotamians?
46. What does the professor imply about the ancient Greeks?
119
Questions 47 through 50: Listen to part of a talk in a biology class.
(woman) A really surprising discovery was made up in Canada recently…
some fossilized animal footprints they found in some sandstone
there. So, why’s that exciting? Well, this sandstone is really old, and
so the footprints are too—older, by about 40 million years they
think, than any footprints ever found… of animals that walked on
land. Since we believe that land animals originally emerged from
the sea, well, this shows the move from sea to land happened way
earlier than we thought—40 million years earlier—and that’s a lot.
And finding these fossils was sheer luck. There were these
Canadian stonecutters cutting up sandstone to use as a building
material, and apparently this stone with the fossil prints wasn’t
smooth enough to use. So the workers rejected it for building use,
and the discarded stone lay there for years before anyone who
could recognize its true importance… was lucky enough to lay
eyes on it.
Now how do we know these impressions were made by animals
on land—not still back in the sea, walking on the seafloor? Well,
the footprints look too deep to be made underwater… ‘cause
underwater you’re buoyant and your footsteps’re lighter. So any
tracks wouldn’t be as deep.
But how could sea animals end up doing better by moving onto
land? Well, the sea was full of dangerous predators that would
attack their young. So one theory is that land offered them a safer
place to reproduce—a greater chance to have their young survive.
120
47. What is the talk mainly about?
48. According to the professor, what question does the discovery in Canada help
answer?
49. Why does the professor mention stonecutters?
50. What evidence is given to show whether the footprints were made by animals
on land or underwater?
This is the end of Section 1, Listening Comprehension.
Stop work on Section 1.
121
122
Part A
1. (woman) Hey, you look like you could use a study break. Wanna grab a
coffee?
(man) Why not? Life’s too short to stay in the library all day.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
2. (man) You don’t know if Mary’s going to the concert tonight, do you? I
could really use a ride.
(woman) No, but I can get her number for you.
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
3. (woman) Daniel, is that you? Your hair’s so short! I wouldn’t have recognized
you, except for your jacket and glasses!
(man) All my friends are telling me that. You’re the third one today.
(narrator) What can be inferred about the man?
4. (man) The library’s closed already? It’s only five o’clock.
(woman) I guess with so few students around in the summer there isn’t the
demand.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
5. (woman) Do you think that Professor Monroe would let me interview her?
I’m writing an article for the newspaper on campus research
projects.
(man) Why not? I mean, she loves discussing her research.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
6. (man) Oh, I’m sorry. I just realized that I forgot to bring the headphones
you lent me. I left them back at my dorm.
(woman) That’s all right. I won’t need them until tonight. As long as I’ve got
’em by then.
(narrator) What does the woman imply about the headphones?
Listening Comprehension Script – Practice Test B
7. (man) You’re joining us for dinner tonight, aren’t you?
(woman) Oh, I’m really sorry, but I had the wrong date for my geometry test.
I just found out it’s tomorrow and I need all the time I can get to
prepare.
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
8. (man) Hey, you wouldn’t happen to have any spare cash, would ya’? I left
this morning without my wallet.
(woman) I just cashed my paycheck, so it’s no problem. . . s’long as I get my
money back.
(narrator) What will the woman probably do next?
9. (woman) No way I’m gonna be ready to give my speech tomorrow.
(man) You’d better be ready. It’s a big part of the grade for the course.
(narrator) What does the man imply?
10. (man) I spent my summer vacation up north, in Montana . . .the view of
the mountains there is so beautiful. I think it’d be great to live there
all year round!
(woman) You’ve gotta be kidding! I’m from there and believe me, in the
winter-time it’s so cold out, you couldn’t care less about the
scenery!
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
11. (man) There’s so much stress at this time of the year. How do you
manage to stay so calm?
(woman) Well, the truth is, I only look like I’ve got it all under control.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
12. (woman) What do you think? Should I buy this mobile phone? It has some
amazing features.
(man) Yeah, but you said you don’t use most of the features on the
phone you have. . .
(narrator) What does the man imply?
123
13. (woman) I just went to the campus bookstore to buy my books for next
semester, but there were like a hundred people waiting in line.
(man) You know, you can order most of the textbooks online. . . and
sometimes there’s a discount.
(narrator) What does the man imply?
14. (man) I was just offered that teaching job in Canada.
(woman) You’ve been talking about this forever! I’m thrilled for you.
(narrator) What does the woman imply the man should do?
15. (man) I just ran into your brother a few minutes ago and he was looking
a little down. Is he OK?
(woman) Oh, he’ll be fine. . . It’s something about a good friend of his. . . The
two of them just had a falling out, that’s all.
(narrator) What does the woman say about her brother?
16. (woman) Excuse me. I think you’re in the wrong spot. Professor Carter gave
us assigned seats on the first day of class, remember?
(man) Oh, right—I forgot . . . Sorry.
(narrator) What can be inferred from the conversation?
17. (man) Are you feeling better about that summer job? You said it was
really difficult work.
(woman) Yeah, now that I’ve learned the ropes, it’s great. It was stressful at
first ’cuz I didn’t know what I was doing.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
18. (woman) Peter had us all laughing at lunch today. I didn’t know he was so
funny.
(man) I guess you haven’t been around him very much.
(narrator) What does the man imply?
124
19. (man) Why don’t you all go to the movie without me? It’s pouring out
and I don’t have my umbrella.
(woman) You know, I’ve got an extra one back in my dorm room. It’s just the
next building over.
(narrator) What will the woman probably do?
20. (man) Do you think they could use any more help at the bookstore? I
could really use a little extra cash.
(woman) No, ’fraid not. But you know what? I saw a new Help Wanted sign
at the cafeteria this morning…
(narrator) What does the woman imply?
21. (woman) Well, one month to go ’til my trip to Mexico. I just need to apply for
my passport and I’ll be ready.
(man) It took me almost a month to get mine last year, so I’d get moving
on it if I were you.
(narrator) What does the man mean?
22. (woman) Oh. . . doing these lab reports takes so much time; I can’t believe
that they’re only worth 15 percent of our grade for the course!
(man) Definitely. They should be more like 25 or 30 percent. You know, I
have an appointment with Professor Curtis during her office hours
this week; I think I’ll bring it up with her then.
(narrator) What will the man probably do?
23. (man) Did you know that the bakery went out of business? I wonder if it
has anything to do with that new coffee shop across the street.
(woman) I think so—the last time I was at the bakery the owner told me
that sales had really dropped since the coffee shop opened.
(narrator) What does the woman imply about the bakery?
125
24. (woman) ’Ya know, I grew up in a small town, where everybody knows
everybody.
(man) Me too, and I couldn’t wait to move to the city.
(narrator) What does the man imply?
25. (man) I’m really sorry, but I won’t be able to make it to your play. Do you
know of anyone who could use my ticket?
(woman) Are you giving it away, or . . . ?
(narrator) What does the woman want to know?
26. (man) I was keeping my fingers crossed I’d be spared till after final exams,
but I woke up with a sore throat this morning.
(woman) Sorry to hear. I’ve been lucky so far -- I’m usually the first to catch
whatever’s going around.
(narrator) What does the woman mean?
27. (woman) I’m thinking about taking a sightseeing tour on that ferryboat that
goes around the harbor…
(man) It can be a bit windy out on the water, but you’ll get a really great
view of the skyline--you can’t get that on a bus!
(narrator) What does the man mean?
28. (woman) Wow. All that effort inviting people to audition for our show, and
only five people turn up, including you and me!
(man) How were we supposed to know we were going to get our first
snowstorm of the season today?
(narrator) What does the man mean?
29. (woman) If you’re planning to take the train when you leave next Friday,
remember that I drive right past the station on my way home from
campus.
(man) Say, I think I’ll take you up on that.
(narrator) What will the man probably do next Friday?
126
30. (man) I’m still having a problem with this lamp. Every other day the
lightbulb burns out. Maybe I should take it back.
(woman) Definitely, if you still have the receipt.
(narrator) What does the woman imply the man should do?
This is the end of Part A.
127
Part B
Questions 31 through 34: Listen to a conversation between two friends.
(man) What happened to you today?
(woman) I went to the Bard Music Festival in downtown New York. I listened
to a really nice concert.
(man) Really, whose music were they playing?
(woman) Joseph Haydn’s. It was so beautiful I was humming the music to
myself all the way home on the train. What time is it anyway? It
must be getting late.
(man) 7 o’clock. Did you forget? We were supposed to meet the other
members of the computer science club this afternoon.
(woman) Oh, I’m sorry. It completely slipped my mind.
(man) Sally was going to show me a software program she bought. I
wanted to see it.
(woman) Why didn’t you go?
(man) Well, I was waiting for you--like we planned. And before I knew
it, it was too late. But, forget it. The concert was probably more
interesting.
(woman) My favorite piece was Haydn’s Baryton Trio No. 97. The baryton’s
an old type of stringed instrument. It’s unusual in that it has two
sets of strings. One set you play with a bow like a violin; the other
set you can pluck with your fingers. The balance of the plucking
and bowing was beautiful.
(man) I’ve listened to several of Haydn’s symphonies before. I have a
couple of them on CD’s.
(woman) You do? I’d like to borrow them sometime, if you don’t mind.
(man) If I can find them, sure. My CD collection’s stuffed away
somewhere.
(woman) I wish I could get a CD of the baryton trio I heard.
(man) Well, we’ve still got some time before the mall closes. Why don’t
we check to see if the music shop’s got it?
(woman) All right.
128
31. What is the conversation mainly about?
32. Why did the woman apologize to the man?
33. What is unusual about the baryton?
34. What does the woman want to borrow from the man?
129
Questions 35 through 37: Listen to part of a conversation between a student and her
professor.
(woman)
Professor Robbins, today in class you said that polarized light
pollution endangers wildlife. But I’m not sure what polarized light
pollution is. Is it different than light from streetlights? I mean, I
know that can cause problems for animals.
(man)
Well, streetlight’s a form of direct light, which is different from
polarized light. Let me explain. Light from the Sun vibrates
in all possible directions, but after it bounces off a smooth,
flat surface—like water—it only vibrates in one direction--
horizontally. The light’s become polarized. And the eyes of many
animals can detect this kind of light--they use it for navigation, to
find a body of water for breeding or feeding. Unfortunately, they
also get the same cues from artificial surfaces like roads or glass
buildings.
(woman)
So animals might think they’re heading toward water, but they’re
not.
(man)
Exactly. And any surface that reflects light—cars, plastic
sheeting—they’re all a problem.
(woman)
But there has to be a solution, right? Why not paint the road or
something, to reduce the reflection from the surface?
(man)
Researchers have suggested that. They’ve also suggested hanging
curtains in windows or using less reflective materials in building
construction. But even that wouldn’t totally solve the problem. For
example, if you have transparent plastic bags floating in the ocean,
when the sunlight passing through them becomes polarized, it
makes the plastic appear, to some sea turtles, very similar to the
prey they would ordinarily feed on.
130
35. What are the speakers mainly discussing?
36. What does the professor imply about polarized light that occurs in nature?
37. According to the professor, how do glass buildings affect wildlife?
This is the end of Part B.
131
Part C
Questions 38 through 41: Listen to part of a lecture in a developmental psychology
class.
(woman)
Developmental psychologists study people as they age and
develop… so… the obvious research approach would be to study
a group of participants over several years, right?
This is called a longitudinal study… where we observe the same
participants repeatedly, over time. For example: Suppose you want
to study shyness in children—to see… say… if children who are
shy at age three become less shy as they grow. Well… you’d start
with some 3 year olds… and observe them at various times over
several years. Now, here we’re faced with some practical issues.
Such research takes years to complete. Will researchers be available
that long? What about the participants? Will they be available the
whole time? How big a group do you need to start with to ensure
there’ll be enough participants at the end of the study?
There’re two other research approaches: the cross-sectional study
and the cohort study. The cross-sectional study observes children
of different ages at a single point in time. So back to our study
of shyness in children: A cross-sectional approach would ask a
different question… something like, “Is the average 3 year old
shyer than the average 6 year old?” This is research you could
conduct in a limited period of time. But remember: the approach
you use—longitudinal or cross-sectional—affects the focus and
the design of your study.
This is also true of the third approach, the cohort approach.
Children born in the same year are called cohorts. Let’s see how
this approach would work in our shyness study.
132
38. What does the professor mainly discuss?
39. What question is investigated by the research studies that the professor
describes?
40. What is one of the problems with longitudinal studies that the professor
mentions?
41. How would a cross-sectional study observe children?
133
Questions 42 through 46: Listen to part of a lecture in a geoscience class.
(man)
Gravity is not constant on Earth. One way it varies is with Earth’s
mass in a particular location. For example, an area with greater
mass—like a mountain range—well, gravity will be stronger there.
These anomalies… these differences in gravity from place to place
are measured by highly accurate instruments on a pair of satellites.
These instruments generate what’re called “gravity anomaly maps.”
Gravity anomaly maps show, as I said, that gravity is strongest over
mountain ranges. And it’s weaker over places like depressions
in the Earth’s surface, or over water-filled areas like oceans or
aquifers. Aquifers are underground formations that hold water,
and are often the main source of water for people across large
geographical areas.
Gravity over most types of rock is pretty stable, but it fluctuates
over water because water volumes vary as a result of evaporation,
precipitation, and human activity. For instance, gravity anomaly
maps show that aquifers supplying California’s agricultural region
are shrinking; underground water’s being used for irrigation and
human consumption faster than it can be replenished by rainwater
or melting snow.
By precisely measuring tiny gravitational changes over an aquifer
on a monthly basis, the satellites tell us when an aquifer is at risk of
going dry. Then water-conservation efforts can be put in place to
reduce the amount of water being taken out of the aquifer.
Similarly, gravity anomaly maps can reveal information about
Earth’s changing climate. For example, changes in sea level can be
seen in minute gravitational fluctuations.
134
42. What does the professor mainly discuss?
43. What does the professor emphasize about the instruments on the satellites he
mentions?
44. According to the professor, where is Earth’s gravitational force the strongest?
45. What do gravity anomaly maps indicate about California’s agricultural region?
46. What does the professor say about climate change?
135
Questions 47 through 50: Listen to part of a talk in a United States history class.
(woman)
While we’re on the topic of things that technology has made
obsolete, I’d like to spend a few minutes on the ice industry-- one
of the major industries in the United States in the 1800s.
Now, before refrigerators came into common use, people in rural
areas often had a well or a springhouse to keep perishable foods
fresh. We’re all too young to have used one, but a springhouse
was a small building that people would build over a spring. Farm
families back then would rely on cold water from the spring to
help keep dairy products or meat cool.
But people in cities would have iceboxes instead. And they’d buy
blocks of ice to put in these iceboxes. And then they’d pack all
their milk or meat inside, to keep it fresh. So until refrigerators
made it obsolete, the ice industry supplied city dwellers with these
blocks of ice.
Now, by 1800, people had learned how to harvest blocks of ice
from lakes and ponds, and later to cover this ice with hay and store
it in icehouses. These icehouses were enormous -- among the
largest structures anywhere in the country at that time. Icehouses
were so important that they often had railroad tracks going right
up next to them. In addition to being transported by train, ice
was delivered by ship all along the east coast or further inland by
canal boat. Eventually, the industry supplied blocks of ice to almost
anyplace in the country where people could afford such a luxury.
.
136
47. What is the talk mainly about?
48. What does the speaker imply about springhouses?
49. According to the speaker, what made the ice industry obsolete?
50. What was the purpose of an icebox?
This is the end of Section 1, Listening Comprehension.
Stop work on Section 1.
137
Scoring Information
How to Score the Practice Tests
Use the appropriate answer key on pages 104-105 to determine which questions you
answered correctly and incorrectly. Count the number of correct answers in each section
and write the number in the appropriate box below.
Test A Test B
Section 1
Section 2
Section 3
The number of correct answers for each section is your “number-right” score for that
section. When you have written your number-right scores for all sections in the boxes, look
at the Converted Score chart on page 141.
For this chart, a unique table was developed for each section of the Practice Tests to
convert number-right scores to scaled scores. A “scaled” score has been adjusted to
account for any difference in difficulty between editions of the test. This allows score
comparison regardless of which test form is used.
The first column of the chart gives ranges of number-right scores. The second, third and
fourth columns give ranges of converted scores.
In the column marked “Number-Right Score Range,” find the score range that includes
your number-right score for Section 1. In the column marked “Section 1 Converted Score,”
find the range of converted scores for your number-right score. Write your converted score
range for Section 1 in the appropriate box below. Do the same for your number-right
scores for Section 2 and Section 3.
Test A Test B
Section 1
Section 2
Section 3
When you have entered your ranges of converted scores for all 3 sections, add the first (or
lower) number of each of the 3 section score ranges together. Do the same for the last (or
higher) numbers. This will give you the converted score ranges for the 3 sections of each
Practice Test.
139
Example of Score Calculation
Suppose the number-right scores for the 3 sections in Practice Test A are: Section 1-28,
Section 2-30, Section 3-39. First, find the number-right range for each obtained score
(first column in the table); then find and record the corresponding converted score
range.
Converted Score Ranges
Section 1 Section 2 Section 3
48-49 56-58 57-58
Add together the lower numbers of the 3 converted score ranges.
48 + 56 +57 = 161
Next, add the higher numbers of the converted score ranges.
49 + 58 + 58 = 165
The range of the sum of the converted scores for the 3 sections is 161-165.
Now multiply each number in this range by 10/3.
161 x 10/3 = 536.67 = 537
165 x 10/3 = 550.00 = 550
When multiplication by 10/3 results in a decimal value of .33, round down to the nearest
whole number. Round up to the nearest whole number if multiplication by 10/3 results
in a decimal value of .66.
The total (converted) score range is 537-550.
140
Converted Score Ranges
Number-Right
Score Range
Section 1
Converted Score
Section 2
Converted Score
Section 3
Converted Score
48-50
45-47
42-44
39-41
36-38
33-35
30-32
27-29
24-26
21-23
18-20
15-17
12-14
9-11
0-8
64-68
59-62
56-58
54-56
52-54
51-52
49-50
48-49
46-47
45-46
43-44
40-42
36-39
32-33
31
63-68
59-61
56-58
53-55
50-52
48-49
45-47
42-44
38-40
32-36
31
65-67
62-64
59-61
57-58
55-56
53-54
51-52
49-50
47-48
44-46
41-43
37-40
31-35
31
31
Remember, people perform differently at different times and in different situations. It is
possible that when you take the actual test, your scores may be higher or lower than the
scores you earn on the Practice Tests. This is because you take the Practice Tests under
different circumstances than those you will experience when you take the actual test.
Acceptable Scores
Each institution or school that administers TOEFL ITP® tests determines for itself what scores,
or ranges of scores, are acceptable. There are no passing or failing scores set by ETS.
141
819958
142035-142035 • Y920E.001 • Printed in U.S.A.
9
781733 133821
ISBN 978-1-7331338-2-1
90000
TOEFL ITP® ASSESSMENT SERIES
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